Nursing Elites

1. Individuals with optimal nutritional status differ from those with marginal nutritional status in their:

• A. nutrient reserves.
• B. clinical signs.
• C. body weight.
• D. risk of mental illness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with optimal nutritional status differ from those with marginal nutritional status in their nutrient reserves. Optimal nutritional status implies having adequate nutrient reserves, which is lacking in marginal status. Clinical signs (choice B) may or may not be present in both groups and are not the differentiating factor between optimal and marginal statuses. Body weight (choice C) can vary for reasons other than nutritional status. The risk of mental illness (choice D) is not directly related to the comparison between optimal and marginal nutritional status.

2. How many amino acids are considered indispensable or essential?

• A. 9
• B. 10
• C. 12
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 9. Nine amino acids are considered essential or indispensable because they cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained through the diet. These amino acids include histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the number of essential amino acids is specifically 9, as they are crucial for various bodily functions.

3. People with phenylketonuria should avoid foods made with which nonnutritive sweetener?

• A. acesulfame-K
• B. aspartame
• C. saccharin
• D. sucralose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: People with phenylketonuria should avoid aspartame because it contains phenylalanine, which they cannot metabolize. Acesulfame-K, saccharin, and sucralose do not contain phenylalanine and are safe for individuals with phenylketonuria. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Acesulfame-K, saccharin, and sucralose are incorrect choices because they do not pose a risk for individuals with phenylketonuria due to the absence of phenylalanine in their composition.

4. The type of protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) that develops when the diet lacks protein is called:

• A. kwashiorkor.
• B. marasmus.
• C. anemia.
• D. beriberi.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: kwashiorkor. Kwashiorkor is a form of protein-energy malnutrition that arises due to a protein-deficient diet. This condition leads to symptoms such as edema, skin lesions, and fatty liver. Choice B, marasmus, is a form of PEM caused by overall malnutrition (protein and calorie deficiency), resulting in severe wasting and muscle loss. Choice C, anemia, is a condition characterized by a deficiency of red blood cells or hemoglobin, not specifically related to protein deficiency. Choice D, beriberi, is a disease caused by thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency, not a form of PEM related to protein deficiency.

5. Which of the following sandwiches is high in saturated fatty acids?

• A. Tuna salad
• B. Grilled cheese
• C. Turkey and sprouts
• D. Peanut butter and jelly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Grilled cheese because it is high in saturated fatty acids due to the dairy fat content in cheese. Tuna salad, turkey and sprouts, and peanut butter and jelly do not contain as high levels of saturated fatty acids as grilled cheese. Tuna salad typically contains mayonnaise which may contribute to some saturated fat content, but it is generally lower compared to the cheese in grilled cheese. Turkey and sprouts are leaner options, while peanut butter and jelly are higher in unsaturated fats rather than saturated fats.

Similar Questions