Nursing Elites

1. Identify the spectator ions in the reaction: 2KCl + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbCl2.

• A. K+ and NO3-
• B. K+ and Cl-
• C. Pb2+ and NO3-
• D. Pb2+ and Cl-

Correct answer: B

Rationale: - In the reaction, potassium ions (K+) and chloride ions (Cl-) are present on both sides of the equation. They are not involved in the formation of the products and remain unchanged. - Lead ions (Pb2+) and nitrate ions (NO3-) are involved in the formation of the products potassium nitrate (KNO3) and lead(II) chloride (PbCl2). - Therefore, the spectator ions in this reaction are K+ and Cl-.

2. What is the primary function of the strong nuclear force?

• A. Binding electrons in atomic orbitals
• B. Binding protons and neutrons within the nucleus
• C. Mediating the attractive force between opposite charges
• D. Mediating the repulsive force between like charges

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The strong nuclear force primarily functions to bind protons and neutrons within the nucleus. It is responsible for overcoming the electrostatic repulsion between positively charged protons, holding the nucleus together. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the strong nuclear force specifically acts on nucleons (protons and neutrons) within the nucleus, not on electrons in atomic orbitals or charges outside the nucleus.

3. What is the function of arrector pili muscles?

• A. To control sweat production
• B. To contract and cause goosebumps
• C. To produce sebum
• D. To sense touch

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct function of arrector pili muscles is to contract and cause goosebumps. These small muscles are attached to hair follicles in mammals. When they contract, they cause the hair to stand on end, resulting in goosebumps. This physiological response is often triggered by cold temperatures or emotional states like fear, helping mammals conserve heat or appear larger in threatening situations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Arrector pili muscles are not involved in controlling sweat production (Choice A), producing sebum (Choice C), or sensing touch (Choice D).

4. Which level of protein structure is defined by the folds and coils of the protein's polypeptide backbone?

• A. Primary
• B. Secondary
• C. Tertiary
• D. Quaternary

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary. The secondary structure of a protein is defined by the folds and coils of the protein's polypeptide backbone. This level of structure is characterized by the formation of alpha helices and beta sheets, which are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between amino acids along the polypeptide chain. Choice A, Primary, refers to the linear sequence of amino acids in the protein. Choice C, Tertiary, involves the 3D folding of the entire polypeptide chain. Choice D, Quaternary, pertains to the arrangement of multiple polypeptide subunits in a protein complex.

5. Which types of glial cells are in the PNS?

• A. Schwann cells, satellite cells
• B. Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes
• C. Microglia, ependymal cells
• D. Satellite cells, oligodendrocytes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, which includes Schwann cells and satellite cells as the types of glial cells found in the peripheral nervous system. Schwann cells support neurons and myelinate axons, while satellite cells provide structural support and regulate the microenvironment around neurons in the PNS. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to glial cell types that are typically found in the central nervous system, not the peripheral nervous system. Astrocytes and oligodendrocytes are primarily located in the CNS, where they perform functions such as providing structural support and forming the blood-brain barrier. Microglia are immune cells found in the CNS responsible for immune defense and maintenance of neural environment, while ependymal cells line the cerebral ventricles and the central canal of the spinal cord, contributing to the production and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.

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