Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing acute chest pain?

• A. Administer prescribed nitroglycerin
• B. Provide oxygen
• C. Call for emergency assistance
• D. Reassure the patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a patient experiencing acute chest pain, the initial response should include administering prescribed nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow to the heart, which can be beneficial in managing chest pain related to cardiac issues. Providing oxygen can also be helpful to support oxygenation. However, the priority in this scenario is to address the potential cardiac cause by administering nitroglycerin. Calling for emergency assistance is crucial if the patient's condition does not improve or deteriorates. Reassuring the patient is essential for emotional support but should not be the primary intervention in the case of acute chest pain.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

3. A nurse has administered medications to a group of clients. For which of the following client situations should the nurse complete an incident report?

• A. Administering acetaminophen to an NPO client
• B. Administering insulin lispro to an NPO client
• C. Administering medication to the incorrect client
• D. Administering anticoagulants without checking INR

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because administering insulin lispro to an NPO client can lead to hypoglycemia due to the lack of food to balance the medication. This situation poses a serious risk to the client's safety and should be documented in an incident report. Choice A is not as critical as insulin administration for an NPO client. Choice C is also serious but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Choice D, administering anticoagulants without checking the INR, is important but does not require an incident report unless adverse effects occur, as it may not immediately endanger the client's life.

4. What is the process for taking a telephone order from a provider?

• A. Patient name, drug, dose, route, frequency
• B. Read back for accuracy
• C. Have a witness listen to the order
• D. Write down the order and follow up

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct process for taking a telephone order from a provider involves reading back the information for accuracy. This step ensures that the order is correctly understood and reduces the risk of errors. While listing patient information (Choice A) is essential, it does not encompass the complete process of verifying the order. Having a witness listen to the order (Choice C) may not always be practical or necessary, as direct verification is more efficient. Writing down the order and following up (Choice D) is not as crucial as the immediate read-back process, which allows for real-time clarification and confirmation.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

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