ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing acute chest pain?
- A. Administer prescribed nitroglycerin
- B. Provide oxygen
- C. Call for emergency assistance
- D. Reassure the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the case of a patient experiencing acute chest pain, the initial response should include administering prescribed nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow to the heart, which can be beneficial in managing chest pain related to cardiac issues. Providing oxygen can also be helpful to support oxygenation. However, the priority in this scenario is to address the potential cardiac cause by administering nitroglycerin. Calling for emergency assistance is crucial if the patient's condition does not improve or deteriorates. Reassuring the patient is essential for emotional support but should not be the primary intervention in the case of acute chest pain.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
- B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
- C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and is receiving enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Persistent cough
- C. Constipation
- D. Sweating
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Persistent cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. This symptom should be reported to the healthcare provider to evaluate if a medication adjustment is needed. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with enalapril use and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Increased heart rate, constipation, and sweating are not commonly linked to enalapril, so they are not the priority findings to report in this case.
4. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with a tracheostomy?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection and ensure airway patency
- B. Suction airway secretions and provide humidified air
- C. Inspect stoma site and clean with saline
- D. Provide education on tracheostomy care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: Monitoring for signs of infection and ensuring airway patency is crucial in managing a patient with a tracheostomy. This involves observing for redness, swelling, or discharge at the stoma site, as well as assessing for any signs of respiratory distress. Choice B, suctioning airway secretions and providing humidified air, is important for maintaining airway hygiene but may not be the initial assessment priority. Choice C, inspecting the stoma site and cleaning with saline, is part of routine tracheostomy care but does not address immediate assessment and management needs. Choice D, providing education on tracheostomy care, is valuable but not the primary action required in the assessment and management of a patient with a tracheostomy.
5. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
- B. Limit potassium and phosphorus intake
- C. Increase intake of protein-rich foods
- D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium and phosphorus intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium and phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. Option A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can exacerbate hyperkalemia in individuals with kidney disease. Option C may not be ideal as excessive protein intake can put extra strain on the kidneys. Option D is not the priority; while adequate fluid intake is important, it is not the primary focus when teaching dietary considerations for chronic kidney disease.
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