Nursing Elites

1. During a mental health assessment, a patient states, 'I just don't see the point in anything anymore.' This statement is an indication of which of the following?

• A. Anxiety disorder
• B. Bipolar disorder
• C. Depression
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's statement 'I just don't see the point in anything anymore' reflects feelings of hopelessness and a lack of purpose, which are common symptoms of depression. Depression is characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, emptiness, and loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable. While anxiety disorders can involve excessive worry and fear, bipolar disorder includes episodes of both depression and mania, and schizophrenia typically involves symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, depression is the most appropriate choice based on the patient's statement.

2. In schizophrenia, a patient is experiencing negative symptoms. Which of the following is a negative symptom?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Apathy
• D. Disorganized speech

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In schizophrenia, negative symptoms refer to deficits in normal emotional responses or other thought processes. Apathy is a negative symptom characterized by a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern. Hallucinations (seeing or hearing things that aren't there), delusions (false beliefs), and disorganized speech are positive symptoms, which involve the presence of abnormal behaviors or thoughts.

3. What medication is frequently prescribed for patients with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

• A. Fluoxetine
• B. Sertraline
• C. Buspirone
• D. Diazepam

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Buspirone is a medication commonly prescribed for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its effectiveness and lower risk of dependency compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam. While fluoxetine and sertraline are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) often used for various anxiety disorders, buspirone is specifically indicated for GAD.

4. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, ‘You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-a-week dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: As the patient transitions to maintenance therapy, the typical approach involves decreasing the dosage to a lower level. This adjustment is made to find the minimum effective dose needed for symptom control while reducing the potential side effects associated with long-term use. Choosing a higher dosage (A) would not align with the goal of maintenance therapy, as it may increase the risk of adverse effects. Once-a-week dosing (B) is not a common adjustment for lithium, which is usually prescribed daily for bipolar disorder. Switching to a different drug (D) is typically considered if the current medication is ineffective or intolerable, not as a routine step in transitioning to maintenance therapy.

5. A patient is experiencing a manic episode. Which intervention is most effective?

• A. Encouraging the patient to participate in group activities
• B. Providing a low-stimulation environment
• C. Allowing the patient to move freely around the unit
• D. Engaging the patient in competitive games

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals may be overwhelmed by stimuli. Providing a low-stimulation environment can help reduce excessive sensory input and minimize exacerbation of manic behaviors. This intervention aims to create a calm and structured setting that supports the individual in managing their symptoms effectively.

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