Nursing Elites

1. What is the most effective initial intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?

• A. Encourage the patient to discuss their feelings.
• B. Provide a quiet environment and stay with the patient.
• C. Administer prescribed medication immediately.
• D. Teach the patient relaxation techniques.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a panic attack, the most effective initial intervention is to provide a quiet environment and stay with the patient. This approach can help the patient feel safe and supported, which may help reduce the intensity and duration of the panic attack. Encouraging the patient to discuss their feelings may not be helpful during the acute phase of a panic attack as it can be overwhelming. Administering prescribed medication immediately is not typically the first-line intervention for panic attacks. Teaching relaxation techniques is beneficial in the long term but may not be the most effective immediate intervention during a panic attack.

2. In schizophrenia, a patient is experiencing negative symptoms. Which of the following is a negative symptom?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Apathy
• D. Disorganized speech

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In schizophrenia, negative symptoms refer to deficits in normal emotional responses or other thought processes. Apathy is a negative symptom characterized by a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern. Hallucinations (seeing or hearing things that aren't there), delusions (false beliefs), and disorganized speech are positive symptoms, which involve the presence of abnormal behaviors or thoughts.

3. A client is discussing free associations as a therapeutic tool with a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of this technique?

• A. “I will write down my dreams as soon as I wake up.”
• B. “I might begin to associate my therapist with important people in my life.”
• C. “I can learn to express myself in a nonaggressive manner.”
• D. “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Free association is a psychoanalytic technique where the client is encouraged to say the first thing that comes to their mind without censoring or filtering. This technique helps uncover unconscious thoughts and emotions. Choice D, “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind,” indicates an understanding of free association as it aligns with the principle of allowing thoughts to flow freely without inhibition. Choices A, B, and C do not reflect an understanding of free association and its purpose, making them incorrect. A, focusing on writing down dreams, does not relate to the immediate expression of thoughts. B, associating the therapist with important people, and C, learning to express oneself nonaggressively, do not capture the essence of free association as a technique for exploring unconscious processes.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which symptom would be most indicative of this disorder?

• A. Frequent nightmares
• B. Persistent worrying about multiple issues
• C. Excessive sleeping
• D. Loss of interest in daily activities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Persistent worrying about multiple issues is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Individuals with GAD often experience excessive, uncontrollable worry about various aspects of their life, such as work, relationships, and health. This persistent and excessive worrying distinguishes GAD from normal everyday concerns and is a defining feature of the disorder. Frequent nightmares (Choice A) are more commonly associated with conditions like post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) rather than GAD. Excessive sleeping (Choice C) is not a typical symptom of GAD, as individuals with GAD often experience difficulty falling or staying asleep due to their anxious thoughts. Loss of interest in daily activities (Choice D) is more characteristic of conditions like depression rather than GAD.

5. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted’s wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted’s mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:

• A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
• B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
• D. Lurasidone (Latuda)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lurasidone (Latuda) is an atypical antipsychotic medication commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It can help manage symptoms of mania by stabilizing mood and reducing the intensity of manic episodes. Given Ted's history of bipolar I disorder and the need to address his manic symptoms, Lurasidone (Latuda) is a suitable recommendation by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to aid in managing Ted's condition effectively.

Similar Questions