ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the shift. Which of the following assignments should the LPN question?
- A. Assisting a client who is 24 hr postop to use an incentive spirometer
- B. Collecting a clean catch urine specimen from a client who was admitted on the previous shift
- C. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia
- D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The LPN should question the assignment of replacing the PCA pump cartridge and tubing as it is outside the LPN's scope of practice. LPNs are not trained to handle tasks related to PCA pumps, which involve medication administration and monitoring that are typically within the RN's responsibilities. Assisting a postop client with an incentive spirometer (Choice A), collecting a clean catch urine specimen (Choice B), and providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client with pneumonia (Choice C) are all tasks that fall within the LPN's scope of practice and do not require questioning by the LPN.
2. A client undergoing chemotherapy for cancer is being taught about potential adverse effects of the treatment. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid drinking water before meals
- B. I might experience hair loss during treatment
- C. I might experience an increase in appetite
- D. I should expect my appetite to increase
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hair loss is a common adverse effect of chemotherapy. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding drinking water before meals, experiencing an increase in appetite, or expecting appetite to increase are not related to the potential adverse effects of chemotherapy.
3. Which nursing action is best when managing a client with severe anxiety?
- A. Maintain a calm manner
- B. Help the client identify thoughts prior to the anxiety
- C. Administer anti-anxiety medication
- D. Initiate seclusion if anxiety escalates
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain a calm manner. When managing a client with severe anxiety, the nurse's calm presence can help the client feel more secure and reduce their anxiety levels. It is essential to create a safe and supportive environment. Helping the client identify thoughts prior to anxiety (choice B) may be beneficial in cognitive-behavioral interventions but may not be the initial best action for severe anxiety. Administering anti-anxiety medication (choice C) should be done by a healthcare provider's order and is not the first-line intervention for managing severe anxiety. Initiating seclusion (choice D) should only be considered as a last resort if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others, as it can further escalate anxiety and should not be the initial action.
4. What are the nursing considerations for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy?
- A. Monitor INR levels and check for bleeding
- B. Educate patient on dietary restrictions
- C. Ensure adequate hydration and nutrition
- D. Ensure that the patient remains immobile
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor INR levels and check for bleeding.' When a patient is receiving anticoagulant therapy, nurses must monitor the patient's INR levels to ensure that the anticoagulants are within the therapeutic range and also watch for signs of bleeding, which is a common side effect of anticoagulants. Option B is incorrect because while patient education is important, dietary restrictions are not a direct nursing consideration when administering anticoagulant therapy. Option C is not a specific nursing consideration related to anticoagulant therapy. Option D is incorrect as keeping the patient immobile is not a standard nursing practice for patients on anticoagulant therapy, as mobility is often encouraged to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
- B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
- C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
- D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.
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