Nursing Elites

1. In the emergency department, a nurse is performing triage for multiple clients following a disaster in the community. To which of the following types of injuries should the nurse assign the highest priority?

• A. Below-the-knee amputation.
• B. 10 cm (4 in) laceration.
• C. Fractured tibia.
• D. 95% full-thickness body burn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A below-the-knee amputation requires immediate attention due to the risk of hemorrhage and shock, making it the highest priority. This type of injury can lead to significant blood loss and impaired perfusion, which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. While a 10 cm laceration, a fractured tibia, and a 95% full-thickness body burn are serious injuries requiring urgent care, they do not pose the same immediate threat to life as a below-the-knee amputation. The laceration may require suturing to control bleeding and prevent infection, the fractured tibia needs stabilization to prevent further damage and pain, and the burn necessitates immediate management to prevent complications, but they are not as acutely life-threatening as the amputation.

2. What are the risk factors for developing hypertension?

• A. High sodium diet and lack of physical activity
• B. Low potassium intake and excessive alcohol consumption
• C. Frequent exercise and low cholesterol diet
• D. Smoking and family history

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: High sodium diet and lack of physical activity. These are established risk factors for developing hypertension as they contribute to elevated blood pressure. Choice B, low potassium intake and excessive alcohol consumption, may also impact blood pressure but are not as strongly associated with hypertension as high sodium intake and lack of physical activity. Choice C, frequent exercise and a low cholesterol diet, are actually beneficial for reducing the risk of hypertension. Choice D, smoking and family history, are more closely linked to other health conditions such as cardiovascular diseases, rather than being primary risk factors for hypertension.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula
• B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position
• D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to encourage pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve oxygenation by preventing airway collapse, slowing down the breathing rate, and promoting better gas exchange. Administering oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula is not the first-line intervention as it can cause oxygen toxicity in COPD patients. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position may improve ventilation but does not specifically address the breathing technique required for COPD. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing is generally not recommended for clients with COPD as it can lead to air trapping and increased work of breathing.

4. When using restraints for an agitated/aggressive patient, which of the following statements should NOT influence the nurse's actions during this intervention?

• A. The institution's restraints/seclusion policies
• B. The patient's competence
• C. The patient's voluntary/involuntary status
• D. The patient's nursing care plan

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient's voluntary or involuntary status should not impact the nurse's actions when using restraints. The use of restraints should be based on the patient's behavior and the need to ensure their safety and the safety of others. Choices A, B, and D are important factors that should influence the nurse's actions. The institution's restraints/seclusion policies provide guidelines on the appropriate use of restraints, the patient's competence helps determine their understanding and ability to control their behavior, and the patient's nursing care plan guides the overall care provided, including the use of restraints if necessary.

5. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Calcium
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

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