Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate technique to use when explaining a central line dressing change to a preschool-age client?

• A. Show a picture of the procedure in a book.
• B. Explain the procedure with clear instructions.
• C. Let the child perform a dressing change on a doll.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate technique to use when explaining a central line dressing change to a preschool-age client is to let the child perform a dressing change on a doll. Preschool-age children learn best through play and hands-on activities. Allowing the child to practice on a doll helps them understand the procedure in a non-threatening and interactive way. This technique can reduce anxiety, increase cooperation, and enhance the child's understanding of the dressing change process. Choices A and B do not provide a hands-on approach, which is crucial for preschool-age children. Choice D is incorrect as providing an interactive experience is more effective than just showing pictures or giving verbal instructions.

2. You are assessing a 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant and is in labor. She tells you that she was pregnant once before but had a miscarriage at 19 weeks. You should document her obstetric history as:

• A. gravida 2, para 1.
• B. gravida 2, para 0.
• C. gravida 1, para 1.
• D. gravida 0, para 2.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In obstetrics, gravida indicates the number of pregnancies, including the current one. Para indicates the number of pregnancies carried to viability (20 weeks or more). Since the patient has been pregnant twice but only carried one pregnancy past 20 weeks, her obstetric history should be documented as gravida 2, para 0. The miscarriage at 19 weeks does not contribute to the para count. Choice A (gravida 2, para 1) would indicate that she has had two pregnancies with one resulting in a live birth, which is incorrect. Choice C (gravida 1, para 1) would indicate that she has had one pregnancy with one live birth, which does not reflect her obstetric history. Choice D (gravida 0, para 2) would indicate that she has never been pregnant past 20 weeks, which is also inaccurate.

3. The nurse is preparing new parents for discharge with their newborn. The father asks the nurse why the baby's head is so pointed and puffy-looking. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. His head is molded from fitting through the birth canal. It will become more round.
• B. We refer to that as 'cone head,' which is a temporary condition that goes away.
• C. It might mean that your baby sustained brain damage during birth, and could have delays.
• D. I think he looks just like you. Your head is much the same shape as your baby's.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The corrected response 'His head is molded from fitting through the birth canal. It will become more round.' is the best answer as it explains the physiological reason for the baby's appearance after birth. It reassures the father that the pointed and puffy-looking head is a normal part of the birthing process and will resolve on its own. Choice B is incorrect because while 'cone head' is a term used colloquially, it does not provide a detailed explanation. Choice C is incorrect and should be avoided as it introduces unnecessary worry by suggesting brain damage. Choice D is not an appropriate response as it doesn't address the father's concern or provide accurate information about newborn physiology.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a postpartum client who is 1 day post-delivery. Which finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Lochia rubra with a few small clots
• B. Fundus firm and midline
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
• D. Saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes indicates excessive bleeding, known as postpartum hemorrhage, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring and managing postpartum bleeding are crucial in the early postpartum period to ensure the client's safety and well-being. The other options are normal postpartum findings: lochia rubra with a few small clots is expected in the early postpartum period, a firm and midline fundus indicates proper uterine contraction, and a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) is within the normal range for the postpartum period.

5. Beta-adrenergic agonists such as albuterol are given to Reggie, a child with asthma, to primarily do which of the following?

• A. Dilate the bronchioles
• B. Reduce secondary infections
• C. Decrease postnasal drip
• D. Reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta-adrenergic agonists like albuterol are bronchodilators that primarily work by relaxing and dilating the bronchioles, which helps to alleviate bronchoconstriction, a characteristic feature of asthma. This action leads to improved airflow and easier breathing for individuals experiencing asthma symptoms.

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