Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate technique to use when explaining a central line dressing change to a preschool-age client?

• A. Show a picture of the procedure in a book.
• B. Explain the procedure with clear instructions.
• C. Let the child perform a dressing change on a doll.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate technique to use when explaining a central line dressing change to a preschool-age client is to let the child perform a dressing change on a doll. Preschool-age children learn best through play and hands-on activities. Allowing the child to practice on a doll helps them understand the procedure in a non-threatening and interactive way. This technique can reduce anxiety, increase cooperation, and enhance the child's understanding of the dressing change process. Choices A and B do not provide a hands-on approach, which is crucial for preschool-age children. Choice D is incorrect as providing an interactive experience is more effective than just showing pictures or giving verbal instructions.

2. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate treatment for an 18-year-old woman with severe vaginal bleeding?

• A. Covering the vagina with a trauma dressing.
• B. Administering high concentrations of oxygen.
• C. Placing sterile dressings into the vagina.
• D. Keeping her warm with blankets.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing sterile dressings into the vagina is not an appropriate treatment for severe vaginal bleeding. The correct approach involves applying pressure to the external vaginal area to control bleeding, covering the vagina with a trauma dressing to help with compression, administering high concentrations of oxygen to support oxygenation, and keeping the patient warm with blankets to prevent hypothermia. Placing sterile dressings into the vagina can introduce foreign material, increase the risk of infection, and obstruct proper wound management, making it an incorrect treatment option in this scenario.

3. An 18-month-old child presents with fever, nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and a respiratory rate of 50 bpm. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?

• A. High risk for altered body temperature (hyperthermia)
• B. Ineffective breathing pattern
• C. Ineffective individual coping
• D. Knowledge deficit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the 18-month-old child presenting with fever, nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and a respiratory rate of 50 bpm is 'Ineffective breathing pattern.' These symptoms collectively indicate respiratory distress, which aligns with the nursing diagnosis of ineffective breathing pattern. Nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and an increased respiratory rate are signs of respiratory distress in pediatric patients, suggesting the need for immediate intervention to address the underlying breathing difficulties.

4. What is the proper depth of chest compressions for a 9-month-old infant?

• A. 1/3 the diameter of the chest or about 1 1/2 inches.
• B. 1/4 the diameter of the chest or about 1 inch.
• C. 1/2 the diameter of the chest or about 2 inches.
• D. 1/3 the diameter of the chest or about 3/4 inch.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When performing chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant, the proper depth is 1/3 the diameter of the chest, which equates to approximately 1 1/2 inches. This depth is crucial for effective cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in infants. Choice B, which suggests 1/4 the diameter of the chest or about 1 inch, is incorrect as it does not provide the recommended depth for infants. Choice C, stating 1/2 the diameter of the chest or about 2 inches, is too deep and may cause harm to the infant. Choice D, mentioning 1/3 the diameter of the chest or about 3/4 inch, is also incorrect as it underestimates the required depth for effective chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant.

5. The healthcare provider is providing postpartum care to a client who had a vaginal delivery. Which finding would require further assessment?

• A. Perineal swelling
• B. Moderate lochia serosa
• C. Headache unrelieved by analgesics
• D. Breast engorgement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A headache unrelieved by analgesics can be a sign of a serious condition such as preeclampsia, which is a life-threatening condition characterized by high blood pressure and often protein in the urine. Prompt assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent complications for both the mother and baby.

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