Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

• A. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
• B. Attach the restraints to a non-moving part of the bed.
• C. Avoid requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
• D. Remove the client's restraints based on the client's condition.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.

2. A nurse is caring for a client following an acute myocardial infarction. The client is concerned that providing self-care will be difficult due to extreme fatigue. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement to promote the client's independence?

• A. Request an occupational therapy consult to determine the need for assistive devices
• B. Assign assistive personnel to perform self-care tasks for the client
• C. Instruct the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks
• D. Ask the client if a family member is available to assist with his care

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Instructing the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks is the most appropriate strategy to promote independence following an acute myocardial infarction. This approach allows the client to regain confidence and control over their self-care activities without feeling overwhelmed. Requesting an occupational therapy consult (Choice A) may be beneficial but is not the immediate solution to promote independence. Assigning assistive personnel (Choice B) to perform tasks for the client does not encourage independence. Asking if a family member is available for assistance (Choice D) does not directly promote the client's independence.

3. What is the most important nursing action when administering IV potassium?

• A. Monitor for decreased urine output
• B. Administer via IV push
• C. Administer slowly and dilute in IV fluids
• D. Ensure the client drinks 500 mL of water before administration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important nursing action when administering IV potassium is to administer it slowly and dilute it in IV fluids. This approach helps prevent irritation and hyperkalemia. Monitoring for decreased urine output (Choice A) is important but not as critical as ensuring the safe administration of IV potassium. Administering potassium via IV push (Choice B) is unsafe and can lead to adverse effects. Ensuring the client drinks water before administration (Choice D) is not directly related to the safe administration of IV potassium.

4. What are the key nursing interventions for a patient receiving diuretic therapy?

• A. Monitor electrolyte levels and administer potassium as needed
• B. Restrict fluid intake and provide a low-sodium diet
• C. Encourage oral fluids and increase dietary potassium
• D. Provide high-sodium foods to improve electrolyte balance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor electrolyte levels and administer potassium as needed. Patients on diuretic therapy are at risk of electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes and administering potassium as needed are crucial nursing interventions to prevent imbalances. Choice B is incorrect because restricting fluid intake and providing a low-sodium diet are not typically indicated for patients on diuretic therapy. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral fluids and increasing dietary potassium can exacerbate electrolyte imbalances in patients on diuretics. Choice D is incorrect as providing high-sodium foods would worsen electrolyte balance issues in patients on diuretic therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the early stages of hypovolemic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Heart rate 60/min
• B. Increased urinary output
• C. Increased respiratory rate
• D. Hypothermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the early stages of hypovolemic shock, the body initiates compensatory mechanisms to maintain perfusion. One of these mechanisms is an increased respiratory rate to improve oxygen delivery. This helps to offset the decreased circulating blood volume. A heart rate of 60/min (choice A) is not expected in hypovolemic shock; instead, tachycardia is a common finding due to the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output. Increased urinary output (choice B) is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock as the body tries to conserve fluid. Hypothermia (choice D) is usually a late sign of shock when the body's compensatory mechanisms are failing, and perfusion is severely compromised.

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