Nursing Elites

1. A client undergoing radiation therapy is being taught about skin care by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use a heating pad to soothe the skin
• B. I will avoid using perfumed lotions on the treated area
• C. I will apply cold compresses to the area
• D. I will scrub the area daily with soap and water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because avoiding perfumed lotions is important to prevent skin irritation after radiation therapy. Using a heating pad (A) can further damage the skin, applying cold compresses (C) may not be recommended, and scrubbing the area daily with soap and water (D) can be too harsh on the skin, leading to further irritation and damage.

2. When should a nurse suction a client with a tracheostomy?

• A. Every 6 hours, regardless of distress signs
• B. When the client's respiratory rate drops below 10
• C. When the client shows signs of irritability
• D. When the client begins to cough or show signs of airway blockage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the client when they show signs of irritability. Signs of irritability, such as restlessness or agitation, can indicate the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy. This early indicator suggests that there may be an accumulation of secretions affecting the client's airway. Suctioning should be performed promptly to maintain a clear airway and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because suctioning should be based on clinical signs and symptoms indicating the need for intervention, rather than a fixed schedule or specific vital sign parameters.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

• A. Total bilirubin.
• B. Urine ketones.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

4. Which of the following is a key consideration when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Cover the wound with a dry, sterile dressing
• B. Perform a wound culture before applying ointment
• C. Cleanse the wound with alcohol
• D. Cover the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying ointment is crucial when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer. This step helps identify the presence of any infection, allowing for appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because covering the wound with a dry, sterile dressing may not address potential infections. Choice C is incorrect as cleansing the wound with alcohol can be too harsh and drying to the surrounding skin. Choice D is incorrect because covering the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing is not typically recommended for pressure ulcers, as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during removal.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Client reports nausea.
• B. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr.
• C. Oxygen saturation 90%.
• D. Respiratory rate 14/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.

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