Nursing Elites

1. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of foods high in vitamin D.
• B. I should decrease my intake of foods high in calcium.
• C. I should increase my intake of foods high in phosphorus.
• D. I should decrease my intake of foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Increasing intake of foods high in vitamin D is beneficial for improving calcium absorption and managing osteoporosis. Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium, which is essential for bone health and can aid in managing osteoporosis effectively. Choice B is incorrect because reducing calcium intake would be counterproductive for a client with osteoporosis, as calcium is crucial for bone strength. Choice C is incorrect as phosphorus, while important for bone health, does not directly impact osteoporosis management as much as vitamin D and calcium. Choice D is incorrect as potassium is not directly linked to osteoporosis management, and reducing its intake is not typically part of dietary recommendations for osteoporosis.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of insulin. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

• A. Use a 1-inch needle.
• B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is appropriate. This angle helps ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Using a 1-inch needle is common for subcutaneous injections to reach the subcutaneous fat layer adequately. Tuberculin syringes are typically used for intradermal injections, not subcutaneous injections. Aspirating before injecting is not necessary for subcutaneous injections as it is primarily used for intramuscular injections to ensure the needle is not in a blood vessel.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of lactose intolerance and is receiving teaching from a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• B. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in teaching a client with lactose intolerance is to avoid foods that contain lactose. Lactose intolerance results from the body's inability to digest lactose, a sugar found in dairy products. By avoiding foods containing lactose, the client can manage symptoms and prevent complications associated with lactose intolerance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of high-fiber foods (choice B) may be beneficial for general health but is not directly related to lactose intolerance. Avoiding gluten (choice C) is necessary for individuals with celiac disease, not lactose intolerance. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice D) would worsen symptoms in individuals with lactose intolerance due to the lactose content.

4. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°
• B. Flush the tube with 50 mL of water every 2 hours
• C. Replace the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours
• D. Check the client's gastric residual every 8 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30° is the correct action to take when a client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. This position helps prevent aspiration of the enteral feedings into the lungs, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, elevating the head of the bed promotes proper digestion and absorption of the feedings by utilizing gravity to facilitate movement into the stomach and through the gastrointestinal tract. Flushing the tube with water every 2 hours (Choice B) is not necessary for continuous feedings and may disrupt the feeding schedule. Replacing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours (Choice C) is not the standard recommendation unless there are specific concerns or complications. Checking the client's gastric residual every 8 hours (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings.

5. A client has a new prescription for a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will shake the inhaler before use.
• B. I will breathe out forcefully after inhaling the medication.
• C. I will take the medication with food.
• D. I will use a spacer with the inhaler.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I will shake the inhaler before use.' Shaking the inhaler before use is crucial to ensure proper mixing of the medication inside the inhaler. This action helps to disperse the medication evenly, allowing for consistent dosing during inhalation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Breathing out forcefully after inhaling the medication, taking the medication with food, and using a spacer with the inhaler are not related to the correct use of a metered-dose inhaler. These actions may not lead to optimal medication delivery and do not demonstrate an understanding of the proper technique for using an MDI.

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