Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new prescription for an albuterol metered-dose inhaler is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Inhale quickly when using the inhaler.
• B. Hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication.
• C. Take a second puff of the inhaler immediately after the first.
• D. Exhale fully after using the inhaler.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication. This allows the medication to settle in the lungs and maximize its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect as inhaling quickly may lead to improper medication delivery. Choice C is wrong because taking a second puff immediately after the first without waiting for the prescribed interval may cause an overdose. Choice D is also incorrect as exhaling fully after using the inhaler may result in the medication being exhaled rather than absorbed by the lungs.

2. A charge nurse is discussing HIPAA with a newly licensed nurse. Which action should the charge nurse include in the teaching as an example of a HIPAA violation?

• A. Faxing a patient’s discharge summary to the pharmacy.
• B. Emailing the patient’s positive hepatitis results from an unencrypted server.
• C. Discussing the patient’s care plan during bedside rounds.
• D. Placing the patient’s chart in a secure location at the nurse’s station.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Emailing patient information from an unencrypted server violates HIPAA because it exposes sensitive health information to potential breaches. Choice A is not a violation as long as the fax is sent to the correct recipient. Choice C is not a violation if the discussion is done discreetly and within an appropriate setting. Choice D is a recommended practice to ensure patient information is kept secure.

3. A nurse is educating a client about caloric intake and weight reduction. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
• B. If I eat 450 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
• C. If I eat 250 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
• D. If I eat 300 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.' This statement is accurate because a reduction of 500 calories per day typically results in a weight loss of 1 pound per week. This is based on the principle that a calorie deficit of 3,500 calories equals about 1 pound of body fat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established relationship between calorie reduction and weight loss. Eating 450 fewer calories per day would not lead to a weight loss of 2 pounds per week; similarly, reducing calories by 250 or 300 per day would not result in losing 2 pounds or 1 pound per week, respectively.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lip-smacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

• A. Sunken anterior fontanel
• B. Tenting skin turgor
• C. Flat anterior fontanel
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

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