ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is being taught about the use of levothyroxine. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It should be taken on an empty stomach
- B. Monitor for signs of hyperthyroidism
- C. It is a pain reliever
- D. It should be taken in the morning
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When educating a client about levothyroxine, it is important to emphasize the need to monitor for signs of hyperthyroidism. Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, preferably in the morning, to maximize its absorption. Choice A is incorrect as it should not be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as levothyroxine is not a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect as levothyroxine is usually taken in the morning.
2. A healthcare provider is discussing recommendations for daily nutrient intake during pregnancy with a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation. For which of the following nutrients should the healthcare provider instruct the client to increase intake during pregnancy?
- A. Vitamin E
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Fiber
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium. During pregnancy, it is essential to increase calcium intake as it is crucial for fetal bone development and to prevent maternal bone loss. Adequate calcium supports the increased needs of both the mother and the developing baby. Vitamin E, Vitamin D, and fiber are also important nutrients, but the specific nutrient that needs to be increased during pregnancy for bone development is calcium. Vitamin E is an antioxidant that plays a role in protecting cells from damage, Vitamin D helps with calcium absorption and bone health, and fiber is important for digestive health but does not specifically need to be increased during pregnancy for bone development.
3. In the nursing process, the evaluation phase is used to determine:
- A. Value of the nursing intervention
- B. Accuracy of problem identification
- C. Quality of the plan of care
- D. Degree of outcome achievement
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The evaluation phase of the nursing process is used to determine the degree of outcome achievement. It assesses whether the goals and outcomes set during the planning phase were met. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the worth of the intervention rather than the achievement of outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains to the assessment phase where problems are identified. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the planning phase where the care plan is developed, not evaluated.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Uterine fundus is firm and midline
- B. Client's perineal pad is saturated in 15 minutes
- C. Client reports breast tenderness when breastfeeding
- D. Client's temperature is 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.
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