a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia what should the nurse prioritize addressing
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. When reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia, what should the nurse prioritize addressing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for clients with dementia, addressing restlessness and agitation is a priority as it can lead to distress, safety risks, and potential harm to the client or others. Restlessness and agitation are common behavioral symptoms of dementia and can indicate unmet needs, discomfort, or confusion. Managing these symptoms promptly can help improve the client's quality of life and prevent complications such as falls, injuries, or escalation of challenging behaviors. While other issues like mild confusion, incontinence, and wandering are also important to address, managing restlessness and agitation takes precedence due to its immediate impact on the client's well-being and safety.

2. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for an older adult client who has difficulty sleeping. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Establishing a regular exercise routine at least 2 hours before bedtime promotes better sleep in older adults. Giving a bedtime snack (choice A) may disrupt sleep due to digestion, encouraging a short nap in the afternoon (choice B) can interfere with nighttime sleep, and encouraging exercise right before bed (choice C) can increase alertness and make it harder to fall asleep.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the immediate action the nurse should take is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications such as infection, thrombosis, or sepsis. Removing the IV line helps prevent further irritation and infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may provide some relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but not the immediate action needed to address phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice D) may be prescribed by the provider but is not the first step in managing phlebitis.

5. Which intervention should be included for a client with heart failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weighing the client daily to monitor fluid balance is crucial for clients with heart failure. This intervention helps assess for fluid retention or depletion, providing valuable information for managing the condition effectively. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake during meals (Choice C) may lead to dehydration, which is harmful for clients with heart failure. Limiting daily activity (Choice D) is not recommended as appropriate activity levels should be encouraged for overall well-being, under guidance to prevent excessive fatigue.

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