Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer oxygen and call for emergency assistance
• B. Position the patient in a prone position and give fluids
• C. Administer anticoagulants and elevate the patient's legs
• D. Administer thrombolytics and perform chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen and calling for emergency assistance are the immediate priorities when managing a suspected pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps support the patient's respiratory function, while emergency assistance is crucial for further evaluation and treatment. Positioning the patient in a prone position or giving fluids can worsen the condition by impeding blood flow. Administering anticoagulants may be part of the treatment plan but is not the initial response. Thrombolytics and chest physiotherapy are not first-line treatments for suspected pulmonary embolism and can even be harmful without prior evaluation.

2. After sustaining a closed head injury and numerous lacerations and abrasions to the face and neck, a five-year-old child is admitted to the emergency room. The client is unconscious and has minimal response to noxious stimuli. Which of the following assessments, if observed by the nurse three hours after admission, should be reported to the physician?

• A. The client has slight edema of the eyelids
• B. There is clear fluid draining from the client's right ear
• C. There is some bleeding from the child's lacerations
• D. The client withdraws in response to painful stimuli

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clear fluid draining from the ear can indicate cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a serious concern after a head injury. This leakage can signify a skull fracture or damage to the meninges, potentially leading to infection. Therefore, it should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are typical findings after head trauma and are not as urgent as the presence of clear fluid draining from the ear.

3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure the safety of a client using home oxygen?

• A. Allow smoking in designated areas
• B. Keep oxygen tanks upright at all times
• C. Store the oxygen equipment in a closet
• D. Keep oxygen tanks at least 10 feet away from heat sources

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Keep oxygen tanks upright at all times.' Oxygen tanks should be stored in an upright position to prevent leaks and accidents. Choice A is incorrect as smoking should never be allowed near oxygen due to the risk of fire. Choice C is incorrect as oxygen equipment should be stored in a well-ventilated area, not in a closet. Choice D is incorrect as oxygen tanks must be kept a minimum of 5 to 10 feet away from heat sources to prevent combustion. Therefore, the best practice is to keep oxygen tanks upright to ensure safety.

4. A healthcare professional is assisting with the admission of a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect the provider to prescribe for the client?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Disulfiram
• C. Chlordiazepoxide
• D. Phenobarbital

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage anxiety and prevent seizures during alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol (Choice A) is an antipsychotic medication and is not typically used for alcohol withdrawal. Disulfiram (Choice B) is used in the treatment of alcohol use disorder but is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal. Phenobarbital (Choice D) may be used for alcohol withdrawal seizures but is not the first-line medication for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
• B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
• C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
• D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.

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