Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer oxygen and call for emergency assistance
• B. Position the patient in a prone position and give fluids
• C. Administer anticoagulants and elevate the patient's legs
• D. Administer thrombolytics and perform chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen and calling for emergency assistance are the immediate priorities when managing a suspected pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps support the patient's respiratory function, while emergency assistance is crucial for further evaluation and treatment. Positioning the patient in a prone position or giving fluids can worsen the condition by impeding blood flow. Administering anticoagulants may be part of the treatment plan but is not the initial response. Thrombolytics and chest physiotherapy are not first-line treatments for suspected pulmonary embolism and can even be harmful without prior evaluation.

2. What is the most important intervention when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administer a sedative to reduce agitation
• B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
• C. Increase environmental stimulation
• D. Limit noise and provide a calm environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Identify any reversible causes of delirium.' When managing a client with delirium, it is crucial to first identify and address any reversible factors contributing to the delirium. Administering sedatives (Choice A) may worsen delirium and is not the primary intervention. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice C) can exacerbate symptoms. Limiting noise and providing a calm environment (Choice D) are beneficial but not as crucial as identifying reversible causes.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and is receiving oxytocin for labor induction. The nurse notes early decelerations on the fetal heart rate monitor. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse take?

• A. Continue to monitor the fetal heart rate.
• B. Stop the oxytocin infusion.
• C. Perform a vaginal examination.
• D. Initiate an amnioinfusion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for early decelerations, which are caused by fetal head compression and are considered normal during labor, is to continue monitoring the fetal heart rate. Early decelerations mirror contractions and usually do not require any intervention. Stopping the oxytocin infusion (Choice B) is not necessary as early decelerations are not typically a cause for concern related to oxytocin. Performing a vaginal examination (Choice C) or initiating an amnioinfusion (Choice D) are unnecessary and not indicated specifically for early decelerations.

5. A client who is newly diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia needs to include foods rich in iron in their diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as having the highest amount of iron?

• A. Boiled spinach
• B. Raw carrots
• C. Boiled chicken
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Boiled spinach is an excellent source of iron, making it a top choice for individuals with iron deficiency anemia. Spinach contains non-heme iron, which may not be absorbed as efficiently as heme iron from animal sources but is still beneficial. Raw carrots, boiled chicken, and yogurt are not as rich in iron compared to spinach. Carrots are more known for their beta-carotene content, chicken is a good source of protein but not high in iron, and yogurt does not contain significant amounts of iron.

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