Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
• B. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.

2. What is the role of a nurse in managing a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI)?

• A. Monitor urine output and electrolyte levels
• B. Administer diuretics and restrict potassium
• C. Provide dietary education and monitor fluid intake
• D. Administer antibiotics and check for dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor urine output and electrolyte levels.' In managing a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI), it is crucial for the nurse to monitor urine output and electrolyte levels to assess kidney function and the patient's fluid and electrolyte balance. This monitoring helps in early detection of any worsening kidney function or electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect because administering diuretics and restricting potassium may not be appropriate for all AKI patients and should be done under the direction of a healthcare provider. Choice C is also incorrect as providing dietary education and monitoring fluid intake are important but do not directly address the immediate management of AKI. Choice D is incorrect as administering antibiotics and checking for dehydration are not primary interventions for managing AKI; antibiotics are only given if there is an infection contributing to AKI, and dehydration should be managed but is not the primary role of the nurse in AKI management.

3. A client with a tracheostomy is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider
• B. Suction the tracheostomy
• C. Administer a bronchodilator
• D. Increase the oxygen flow rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the priority action is to suction the tracheostomy to clear the airway and improve breathing. This helps remove secretions or blockages that may be causing the distress. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice A) can be done after ensuring immediate airway clearance. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice C) would not address the primary issue of airway clearance in a tracheostomy patient. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) may be necessary but should come after ensuring the airway is clear.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has peripheral arterial disease (PAD) about exercise recommendations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Exercise to the point of pain
• B. Stop exercising if pain occurs
• C. Exercise only once per week
• D. Avoid walking to prevent pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to 'Stop exercising if pain occurs.' In peripheral arterial disease (PAD), it is crucial to avoid exercising to the point of pain as this may worsen the condition and lead to complications. Exercising to the point of pain can result in inadequate blood flow to the extremities, causing further damage. By stopping exercise if pain occurs, the client can prevent exacerbating their condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because exercising to the point of pain, limiting exercise to once per week, and avoiding walking altogether are not recommended strategies for managing PAD and could potentially harm the client.

5. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is an adverse effect of digoxin. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia, which increases the risk of toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial when a client is taking digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypernatremia, hypertension, and tachycardia are not directly associated with digoxin use.

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