a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provid
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.

2. A client is learning about preventing hip dislocation before total hip arthroplasty. Which instruction should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent hip dislocation after total hip arthroplasty is to avoid crossing the legs at the knees. This position can put stress on the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bending the hip more than 90 degrees, lying on the unaffected side, or keeping the legs in a neutral position are not directly related to preventing hip dislocation in this context.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

4. What should the nurse do first when a client with a tracheostomy exhibits respiratory distress?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action when a client with a tracheostomy exhibits respiratory distress is to suction the tracheostomy. This helps to clear secretions and improve the client's ability to breathe. Notifying the provider (choice A) can cause a delay in immediate intervention. Administering a bronchodilator (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice D) can be helpful but should come after addressing the immediate need for suctioning to clear the airway.

5. A nurse is caring for a 37-year-old woman with metastatic ovarian cancer admitted for nausea and vomiting. The physician orders total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a nutritional consult, and diet recall. Which of the following is the BEST indication that the patient's nutritional status has improved after 4 days?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An improved albumin level is the best indicator of improved nutritional status after TPN. Albumin is a key protein that reflects the body's overall nutritional status and is commonly used to assess nutritional health. Choices A, B, and D are not as reliable indicators of improved nutritional status. Choice A may not accurately reflect nutritional improvement as it could be influenced by factors other than nutrition. Choice B may indicate fluid retention or loss rather than true nutritional improvement. Choice D, hemoglobin level, is more related to anemia and oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, rather than nutritional status.

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