a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provid
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ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.

2. What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and continuing the IV can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Increasing the IV flow rate is not indicated and may worsen the inflammation. Monitoring for signs of infection is important, but the priority is to remove the source of inflammation by discontinuing the IV.

3. What is the most important step when preparing to administer a blood transfusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensure the blood type is compatible with the client. This is the most crucial step in preparing for a blood transfusion to prevent severe transfusion reactions. Checking the client for a fever (Choice A) is important but not the most critical step. Administering blood via IV push (Choice C) is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered as a slow drip. Warming the blood to body temperature (Choice D) is not a standard practice and can lead to hemolysis, making it an incorrect choice.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor while the client is taking this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium depletion due to increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium (choice A) levels are not typically affected by furosemide. Glucose (choice B) monitoring is important with other medications like corticosteroids but is not directly related to furosemide use. Calcium (choice D) levels are not significantly impacted by furosemide.

5. What are the risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet are established risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes. Obesity puts extra pressure on the body's ability to properly control blood sugar levels. A sedentary lifestyle contributes to weight gain and insulin resistance. Poor diet, especially one high in processed foods and sugary beverages, can also increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because age, gender, family history, smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension can impact overall health but are not the primary risk factors for Type 2 diabetes.

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