a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provid
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Nursing Elites

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1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.

2. A nurse is receiving report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with pneumonia and a new onset of confusion needs immediate evaluation for changes in neurological status. This could indicate a decline in respiratory status or potential complications such as hypoxia or sepsis. Option A, a client who is NPO and has dry mucous membranes, may need intervention but does not indicate an acute change in condition. Option B, a client with rotavirus who has been vomiting, requires assessment and intervention but does not pose an immediate threat to life. Option C, a client with a urinary catheter and cloudy urine, may indicate a urinary tract infection but does not require immediate attention compared to the client with new onset confusion and pneumonia.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

4. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shuffling gait. A shuffling gait can indicate extrapyramidal symptoms, a potentially serious side effect of haloperidol. Extrapyramidal symptoms include movement disorders such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as urgent or indicative of serious complications compared to a shuffling gait.

5. A client scheduled to begin chemotherapy is discussing alopecia with a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should inform the client that their oncologist might prescribe a cold cap during treatment to reduce chemotherapy-induced hair loss by cooling the scalp. Choice A is incorrect as washing the hair during treatment is generally recommended. Choice C is incorrect as sunscreen is not typically needed for the scalp in this context. Choice D is incorrect as regrowth of hair can vary among individuals and is not guaranteed within a specific timeframe.

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