ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
- B. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.
2. Which symptom would indicate a complication after a subdural hematoma?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Decreased level of consciousness
- C. High-pitched cry
- D. Bulging posterior fontanelle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A bulging posterior fontanelle is a sign of increased intracranial pressure in infants, not a common symptom after a subdural hematoma. In the context of a subdural hematoma, a decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of a complication as it can be a sign of worsening brain function due to increased pressure on the brain from the collection of blood in the subdural space. Increased appetite and high-pitched cry are not typically associated with complications of a subdural hematoma.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with hyperkalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Nausea
- C. Increased thirst
- D. Restlessness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a characteristic finding in hyperkalemia. High levels of potassium can affect the normal function of muscles, leading to weakness. Nausea and increased thirst are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Restlessness is more commonly seen in conditions such as hypoxia or anxiety, not specifically in hyperkalemia.
4. Which of the following findings indicates a need for immediate attention in a client diagnosed with delirium?
- A. Confusion and disorientation that resolve with rest
- B. A blood pressure reading of 110/70
- C. Irritability and agitation that worsen throughout the day
- D. Mild confusion during the evening hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Irritability and agitation that worsen throughout the day. These symptoms are concerning in a client diagnosed with delirium as they may indicate an exacerbation of the condition or an underlying cause that requires immediate attention. Option A describes symptoms that resolve with rest, which may not be as urgent. Option B provides a normal blood pressure reading, which is not typically associated with immediate attention in delirium cases. Option D describes mild confusion during specific hours, which may not be as critical as worsening symptoms throughout the day.
5. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement for a client with dementia who is at risk of falling?
- A. Keep the bed in the lowest position
- B. Raise all four side rails to prevent falls
- C. Assist with ambulation every 2 hours
- D. Use a bed exit alarm to notify staff of attempts to leave the bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia at risk of falling is to use a bed exit alarm to notify staff of attempts to leave the bed. This intervention helps in preventing falls by alerting the staff when the client tries to get out of bed. Keeping the bed in the lowest position (Choice A) may not prevent falls and could make it challenging for staff to provide care. Raising all four side rails (Choice B) can be a restraint and is not recommended as it may lead to entrapment or other risks. Assisting with ambulation every 2 hours (Choice C) may not be feasible or effective in preventing falls, as the client may attempt to get out of bed at any time.
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