Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
• B. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.

2. When a client with dementia frequently becomes agitated, what should the nurse prioritize investigating?

• A. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
• B. Medication history
• C. Environmental factors
• D. Cognitive functioning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to prioritize investigating the client's medication history. This is important because certain medications can contribute to agitation in clients with dementia. Understanding the medication history can help identify potential causes of agitation and guide appropriate interventions. Checking for fluid and electrolyte imbalances is important in healthcare but may not directly relate to the client's agitation. While environmental factors can influence behavior, investigating the medication history is more pertinent in this case. Cognitive functioning assessment is crucial in dementia care but may not be the priority when addressing acute agitation.

3. What is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Irritability
• C. Hypotension
• D. Decreased oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions accumulate in the airway, it can lead to discomfort and irritability in the client. Bradycardia, hypotension, and decreased oxygen saturation are usually later signs of inadequate airway clearance and oxygenation. Bradycardia may indicate severe hypoxia, while hypotension and decreased oxygen saturation are consequences of prolonged airway obstruction.

4. A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse apply sterile gloves. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse demonstrates sterile technique?

• A. Putting a glove on the dominant hand first
• B. Removing gloves and putting on a sterile gown first
• C. Putting sterile gloves last
• D. Applying gloves without touching outer surfaces

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Putting the glove on the dominant hand first is a key step in maintaining sterile technique as it reduces the risk of contamination. By covering the dominant hand first, the nurse minimizes the risk of contaminating the other hand during the glove application process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B introduces the concept of a sterile gown, which is not relevant to the question about applying sterile gloves. Choice C is incorrect as putting sterile gloves last does not follow the correct sequence of steps in maintaining sterility. Choice D, while important, is not as critical as covering the dominant hand first when applying sterile gloves.

5. A nurse is collecting data from a school-age child who has sustained a skull fracture. Which of the following is a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Nausea
• B. Confusion about own name
• C. Rapid pulse
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion, especially about one's own name, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure and should be addressed. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, but confusion about personal information is a more specific and critical indication that requires immediate attention. Rapid pulse may be a possible response to increased intracranial pressure, but it is not as specific as confusion about own name in this scenario.

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