Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
• B. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.

2. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?

• A. Protect the airway and monitor for post-ictal confusion
• B. Administer anticonvulsant medications
• C. Apply restraints to prevent injury
• D. Place the patient in a side-lying position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.

3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Canned soup
• B. Grilled chicken
• C. Peanut butter
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Grilled chicken is the correct choice as it is a low-potassium, low-sodium option suitable for clients with chronic kidney disease. Canned soup (choice A) is typically high in sodium, which is not recommended for this client population. Peanut butter (choice C) is high in potassium and phosphorus, which should be limited in individuals with kidney disease. Orange juice (choice D) is high in potassium and should be consumed in moderation by clients with chronic kidney disease.

4. What is the first intervention for a patient in shock?

• A. Administer fluids
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Provide oxygen
• D. Call for assistance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer fluids. In a patient experiencing shock, the priority is to address inadequate perfusion by restoring circulating blood volume. Administering fluids helps improve perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Monitoring blood pressure, providing oxygen, and calling for assistance are important steps but administering fluids is the initial and most critical intervention in the management of shock.

5. Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase the intake of potassium
• B. Limit the intake of phosphorus-rich foods
• C. Encourage the intake of protein-rich foods
• D. Advise the client to increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease. In individuals with chronic kidney disease, the kidneys cannot filter phosphorus effectively, leading to a buildup in the blood. This can result in bone and heart problems. Therefore, reducing phosphorus intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake may be harmful as potassium levels can accumulate in the blood with impaired kidney function. Encouraging protein-rich foods may not be suitable as excessive protein intake can strain the kidneys. Advising to increase fluid intake should be done cautiously as individuals with chronic kidney disease may need to restrict fluids based on their stage of the disease.

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