ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
- B. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.
2. When caring for a client diagnosed with delirium, which condition is most important for the nurse to investigate?
- A. Cancer of any kind
- B. Impaired hearing
- C. Prescription drug intoxication
- D. Heart failure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a client diagnosed with delirium, the most important condition for the nurse to investigate is prescription drug intoxication. Delirium can be caused by various factors, and prescription drug intoxication is a common reversible cause. Investigating this factor first is crucial to identify and address the underlying cause promptly. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be directly associated with delirium compared to prescription drug intoxication. While cancer, impaired hearing, and heart failure can have their complications and effects, they are not typically the primary causes of delirium in a client.
3. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.
4. A client undergoing bariatric surgery is being taught about postoperative dietary changes by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will drink carbonated beverages after surgery
- B. I will eat large meals after surgery
- C. I will avoid consuming solid foods for several weeks
- D. I will avoid taking small sips of liquids
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because avoiding solid foods after bariatric surgery is crucial to prevent complications and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect as carbonated beverages can cause discomfort and should be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as large meals are not suitable after bariatric surgery. Choice D is incorrect as taking small sips of liquids is encouraged to prevent dehydration and promote recovery.
5. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid volume deficit?
- A. Encourage oral fluid intake
- B. Administer IV fluids as ordered
- C. Monitor urine output and check electrolyte levels
- D. Monitor skin turgor and capillary refill
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging oral fluid intake is a crucial nursing intervention in managing a patient with fluid volume deficit. By encouraging oral fluid intake, the patient can increase hydration levels, helping to correct the deficit. Administering IV fluids may be necessary in severe cases or when the patient is unable to tolerate oral intake. Monitoring urine output and checking electrolyte levels are essential aspects of assessing fluid volume status, but they are not direct interventions for correcting fluid volume deficit. Monitoring skin turgor and capillary refill are important assessments for fluid volume status but are not direct management strategies.
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