Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
• B. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.

2. What are the signs of an acute myocardial infarction?

• A. Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath
• B. Nausea, vomiting, and high fever
• C. Headache, confusion, and low blood pressure
• D. Increased heart rate and bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath. These are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction. Choice B is incorrect because nausea, vomiting, and high fever are not typical signs of a heart attack. Choice C is incorrect as headache, confusion, and low blood pressure are not specific to myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because an acute myocardial infarction typically presents with an increased heart rate, not bradycardia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Diaphoresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia due to the body's response to low blood sugar. During hypoglycemia, the body releases epinephrine, leading to sympathetic nervous system activation. This can result in bradycardia as a compensatory mechanism to preserve glucose for vital organs such as the brain. Tachycardia, hypotension, and diaphoresis are more commonly associated with hypoglycemia when it progresses to severe stages and the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed.

4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about cancer prevention. The nurse should include that frequent consumption of which of the following foods increases the risk for developing cancer?

• A. Lamb
• B. Poultry
• C. Tuna
• D. Beef

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lamb. Lamb is high in saturated fat, which is linked to an increased risk of developing cancer. Choice B (Poultry) is a lean protein source and is not associated with an increased cancer risk. Choice C (Tuna) is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids, which have anti-inflammatory properties that may reduce cancer risk. Choice D (Beef) is also high in saturated fat like lamb, making it a poor choice for cancer prevention.

5. What is the primary action the nurse should take first for a client with a pressure ulcer who has a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL?

• A. Increase the protein intake in the diet
• B. Consult with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet
• C. Increase the IV fluid infusion rate
• D. Administer a protein supplement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to consult with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates hypoalbuminemia, which can impair wound healing. Consulting with a dietitian to optimize the client's protein intake is crucial in promoting wound healing for pressure ulcers. Increasing the protein intake in the diet (Choice A) may not be sufficient without proper guidance from a dietitian. Increasing the IV fluid infusion rate (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing the protein deficiency. Administering a protein supplement (Choice D) should be guided by a healthcare professional's recommendation after consulting with a dietitian.

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