Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication of a need for dosage adjustment?

• A. Tremors
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased appetite may indicate that the client is experiencing symptoms of hyperthyroidism due to an excessive dose of levothyroxine. This finding suggests a need for a dosage adjustment to prevent potential complications. Tremors are more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, not necessarily indicating a need for dosage adjustment. Bradycardia and diarrhea are not typical signs of an incorrect levothyroxine dosage and would not directly warrant a need for adjustment.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Numbness of the extremities.
• B. Abdominal cramping.
• C. Bradycardia.
• D. Positive Chvostek's sign.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Abdominal cramping is a common manifestation of hyponatremia, as the sodium imbalance affects muscle function. Numbness of the extremities (Choice A) is more commonly associated with electrolyte imbalances such as hypocalcemia. Bradycardia (Choice C) is not typically a direct manifestation of hyponatremia. Positive Chvostek's sign (Choice D) is related to hypocalcemia, not hyponatremia.

3. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?

• A. Administer insulin and glucose
• B. Restrict potassium intake
• C. Monitor ECG
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.

4. What is the primary intervention for sepsis?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Administer fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary intervention for sepsis involves a multifaceted approach, including administering IV antibiotics to address the underlying infection and administering fluids to stabilize the patient's hemodynamic status. Monitoring blood pressure is important in the management of sepsis, but it is not the sole primary intervention. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above' as it encompasses the comprehensive approach required for effective sepsis management.

5. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?

• A. Protect the airway and monitor for post-ictal confusion
• B. Administer anticonvulsant medications
• C. Apply restraints to prevent injury
• D. Place the patient in a side-lying position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.

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