a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation which of the following results should the nurse report to the
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 140,000/mm³ is at the lower end of the normal range but can be concerning in pregnancy, especially if there are signs of thrombocytopenia or bleeding. Thrombocytopenia in pregnancy can lead to complications such as bleeding during childbirth or excessive bleeding postpartum. The other laboratory values mentioned are within normal ranges for pregnancy and do not typically raise immediate concerns. High WBC counts can be a normal response to pregnancy, hemoglobin levels around 11.2 g/dL and hematocrit levels around 34% are also considered normal in the third trimester.

2. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of bupropion. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bupropion may lower the seizure threshold, increasing the risk of seizures, especially in clients with a history of seizures. Choice A is incorrect because bupropion is associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Choice C is incorrect as bupropion is not an SSRI; it is an aminoketone antidepressant. Choice D is incorrect as bupropion, like all medications, can have side effects, and it is essential for clients to be aware of them.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.

4. A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing the pain level of a client who has dementia and difficulty communicating. Which pain assessment technique should the healthcare professional use?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients with dementia who have difficulty communicating, assessing pain using behavioral indicators like increased agitation and restlessness is more effective than relying on self-reported scales such as numeric rating scale, visual analog scale, or faces pain scale. Behavioral indicators provide valuable insights into pain perception in individuals who may have challenges expressing themselves verbally.

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