a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation which of the following results should the nurse report to the
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 140,000/mm³ is at the lower end of the normal range but can be concerning in pregnancy, especially if there are signs of thrombocytopenia or bleeding. Thrombocytopenia in pregnancy can lead to complications such as bleeding during childbirth or excessive bleeding postpartum. The other laboratory values mentioned are within normal ranges for pregnancy and do not typically raise immediate concerns. High WBC counts can be a normal response to pregnancy, hemoglobin levels around 11.2 g/dL and hematocrit levels around 34% are also considered normal in the third trimester.

2. A nurse receives a change-of-shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse attend to first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cool feet bilaterally in a client with a long leg cast may indicate compromised circulation, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia but does not require immediate attention. Dark, foul-smelling urine with decreased urine output indicates a possible urinary tract infection or dehydration but can be addressed after attending to the client with compromised circulation. A productive cough and a normal oral temperature do not suggest an urgent condition compared to compromised circulation in a client with a long leg cast.

3. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

4. A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.

5. A healthcare provider is educating a client about the use of finasteride. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct answer: The healthcare provider should inform the client that finasteride may take several months to show therapeutic effects for conditions like hair loss or benign prostatic hyperplasia. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride is not used to treat hypertension. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride is actually used to treat hair loss, not cause it. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of harm to a male fetus.

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