ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A client with acute diverticulitis is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?
- A. I will avoid eating fiber until this condition resolves
- B. I will take a laxative daily
- C. I will receive the nutrients I need through my IV fluids
- D. I will eat only solid foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. During acute diverticulitis, avoiding fiber is essential as it helps reduce irritation of the intestines. Choice B is incorrect because taking a laxative daily can exacerbate diverticulitis. Choice C is incorrect as IV fluids mainly provide hydration and electrolytes, not all essential nutrients. Choice D is incorrect because during acute diverticulitis, a low-fiber or liquid diet is typically recommended to rest the bowel.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
- B. Monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes.
- C. Place the client in the lithotomy position.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep-tendon reflexes is crucial in clients with preeclampsia as hyperreflexia can indicate severe complications. Restricting the client's fluid intake is not recommended as hydration is essential. Placing the client in the lithotomy position can worsen preeclampsia by reducing blood flow to the heart, so it should be avoided. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may not be suitable for a client with preeclampsia due to the risk of falls and increased stress on the body.
3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?
- A. Monitor ECG for dysrhythmias
- B. Monitor urine output
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor various parameters to ensure patient safety. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any potential dysrhythmias that may occur due to potassium imbalances. Monitoring urine output is important as potassium levels can affect renal function. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the IV potassium therapy. Therefore, all the options - monitoring ECG for dysrhythmias, urine output, and serum potassium levels - are necessary when administering IV potassium, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as they each address different aspects of patient monitoring when receiving IV potassium.
4. What are the nursing interventions for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
- A. Administer glucose or dextrose and monitor blood sugar levels
- B. Monitor vital signs and provide a high-carbohydrate snack
- C. Monitor for sweating and confusion
- D. Provide insulin and assess for hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Administering glucose or dextrose is a crucial nursing intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia as it helps to quickly raise blood sugar levels. Monitoring blood sugar levels is essential to ensure that the patient's glucose levels normalize. Choice B is incorrect because providing a high-carbohydrate snack may not be sufficient to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in severe hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect because while monitoring for sweating and confusion is important in hypoglycemia, it is not a direct nursing intervention. Choice D is incorrect as providing insulin would lower blood sugar levels further, worsening hypoglycemia.
5. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?
- A. Protect the airway and monitor for post-ictal confusion
- B. Administer anticonvulsant medications
- C. Apply restraints to prevent injury
- D. Place the patient in a side-lying position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access