ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin and NPH insulin. What is the proper sequence of events the nurse should follow?
- A. Inspect the vials for contamination.
- B. Withdraw regular insulin first, then NPH.
- C. Inject air into the NPH insulin vial first.
- D. Roll the NPH insulin vial between the hands to mix.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence of events for administering regular insulin and NPH insulin begins with inspecting the vials for contamination to ensure patient safety. Rolling the NPH insulin vial between the hands to mix and injecting air into the NPH insulin vial should follow the inspection step. Afterward, the nurse should inject air into the regular insulin vial and then withdraw the regular insulin first. Option A is the correct answer as it outlines the initial crucial step in the administration process. Option B is incorrect as it provides the incorrect order of withdrawing the insulins. Option C is incorrect as injecting air into the NPH insulin vial should come after inspecting the vials. Option D is incorrect as rolling the NPH insulin vial should be done after inspecting the vials and injecting air into the NPH insulin vial.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in phosphorus
- B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
- C. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in iron
- D. I will increase my intake of calcium supplements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit their intake of phosphorus because high phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and cardiovascular problems. Increasing foods high in potassium (choice B) is not recommended as it can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease. Decreasing intake of foods high in iron (choice C) is not specifically indicated for chronic kidney disease. Increasing calcium supplements (choice D) may not be necessary and can potentially lead to hypercalcemia in individuals with kidney disease.
3. A healthcare provider is educating a client about the use of montelukast. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It is used for acute asthma attacks
- B. It is taken once daily in the evening
- C. It should be taken with food
- D. It has no side effects
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that is typically taken once daily in the evening for asthma management. Choice A is incorrect as montelukast is not used for acute asthma attacks but rather for the prevention of asthma symptoms. Choice C is also incorrect because montelukast can be taken with or without food. Choice D is misleading as all medications, including montelukast, have potential side effects.
4. A healthcare professional is teaching a client about the use of methotrexate. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It is a pain reliever
- B. Monitor for signs of infection
- C. It can be taken without food
- D. It is safe to use during pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Educating the client to monitor for signs of infection is crucial for early detection and management. Choice A is incorrect because methotrexate is not a pain reliever; it is commonly used to treat conditions like cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, and psoriasis. Choice C is incorrect because methotrexate is usually recommended to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because methotrexate is known to be harmful during pregnancy and should not be used by pregnant individuals as it can cause birth defects.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?
- A. Stomatitis
- B. Fatigue
- C. Wasting syndrome
- D. Lipodystrophy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fatigue. A client with early HIV infection can be asymptomatic or experience symptoms like viral infections, such as fever, rash, and fatigue. Fatigue is a common early manifestation of HIV infection due to the body's immune response. Stomatitis (choice A) is more commonly associated with oral health issues or infections. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more advanced manifestations seen in later stages of HIV infection, characterized by severe weight loss and changes in body fat distribution, respectively.
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