Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin and NPH insulin. What is the proper sequence of events the nurse should follow?

• A. Inspect the vials for contamination.
• B. Withdraw regular insulin first, then NPH.
• C. Inject air into the NPH insulin vial first.
• D. Roll the NPH insulin vial between the hands to mix.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence of events for administering regular insulin and NPH insulin begins with inspecting the vials for contamination to ensure patient safety. Rolling the NPH insulin vial between the hands to mix and injecting air into the NPH insulin vial should follow the inspection step. Afterward, the nurse should inject air into the regular insulin vial and then withdraw the regular insulin first. Option A is the correct answer as it outlines the initial crucial step in the administration process. Option B is incorrect as it provides the incorrect order of withdrawing the insulins. Option C is incorrect as injecting air into the NPH insulin vial should come after inspecting the vials. Option D is incorrect as rolling the NPH insulin vial should be done after inspecting the vials and injecting air into the NPH insulin vial.

2. A client newly diagnosed with asthma is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use my fluticasone inhaler to treat asthma attacks.
• B. I will use a peak flow meter once a week.
• C. I will keep a diary of when I use my albuterol inhaler.
• D. I will limit my fluid intake to prevent mucus production.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Keeping a diary of albuterol use helps monitor the frequency and severity of asthma symptoms, which can guide the healthcare provider in adjusting treatment as needed. Option A is incorrect because fluticasone is a controller medication used for long-term management, not for treating acute asthma attacks. Option B is incorrect as using a peak flow meter once a week may not provide real-time information on asthma control. Option D is incorrect as limiting fluid intake does not directly prevent mucus production in asthma.

3. A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about the expected integumentary changes in older adults. Which should the nurse include?

• A. Increase in elasticity
• B. Decrease in pigmentation
• C. Decrease in elasticity
• D. Increase in moisture levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decrease in elasticity.' As individuals age, they typically experience a decrease in skin elasticity, leading to sagging skin and increased wrinkles. This change in elasticity can contribute to various skin-related issues such as pressure ulcers and delayed wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because older adults do not experience an increase in elasticity or moisture levels, and while there may be changes in pigmentation, the primary change related to aging in the integumentary system is a decrease in elasticity.

4. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about measures to prevent the development of skin cancer. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid going outside between 1000 and 1600.
• B. I will wear a wide-brimmed hat when I go outside.
• C. I will make sure to apply sunscreen with SPF 10 when I’m in the sun.
• D. I will reapply my sunscreen every 2 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An SPF of at least 15 is recommended to effectively protect against harmful UV rays. A sunscreen with an SPF of 10 is insufficient and does not provide adequate protection against skin cancer. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate good understanding of sun protection measures, such as avoiding peak sun hours, wearing protective clothing like a wide-brimmed hat, and reapplying sunscreen every 2 hours, which are all effective strategies to prevent skin cancer.

5. A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Prepare the client for a thoracentesis
• C. Elevate the client’s lower extremities
• D. Administer anticoagulant therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.

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