Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin and NPH insulin. What is the proper sequence of events the nurse should follow?

• A. Inspect the vials for contamination.
• B. Withdraw regular insulin first, then NPH.
• C. Inject air into the NPH insulin vial first.
• D. Roll the NPH insulin vial between the hands to mix.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence of events for administering regular insulin and NPH insulin begins with inspecting the vials for contamination to ensure patient safety. Rolling the NPH insulin vial between the hands to mix and injecting air into the NPH insulin vial should follow the inspection step. Afterward, the nurse should inject air into the regular insulin vial and then withdraw the regular insulin first. Option A is the correct answer as it outlines the initial crucial step in the administration process. Option B is incorrect as it provides the incorrect order of withdrawing the insulins. Option C is incorrect as injecting air into the NPH insulin vial should come after inspecting the vials. Option D is incorrect as rolling the NPH insulin vial should be done after inspecting the vials and injecting air into the NPH insulin vial.

2. A client is being taught about the use of digoxin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Monitor for low blood pressure
• B. It can cause bradycardia
• C. Take it with calcium supplements
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It can cause bradycardia.' Digoxin can cause bradycardia as one of its side effects. Clients should be educated about this potential effect and instructed to monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin is more likely to cause arrhythmias than low blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Choice D is incorrect as digoxin has various side effects, and clients should be aware of them.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is hyperventilating and has the following ABG results: pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, and HCO3- 25 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize that the client has which of the following acid-base imbalances?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, the client is hyperventilating, leading to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide. As a result, the PaCO2 decreases, causing a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration and an increase in pH, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. Choice A, Respiratory acidosis, is incorrect because the ABG results show a low PaCO2, not an elevated one. Choices C and D, Metabolic acidosis and Metabolic alkalosis, do not align with the ABG results provided, which point towards a respiratory, not metabolic, imbalance.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Report a decrease in urine output.
• D. Expect swelling in the lower extremities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss, which may cause hypokalemia. Increasing potassium intake can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances due to increased urination. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in urine output could indicate a problem and should be reported immediately. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling in the body, including the lower extremities, so expecting swelling is not appropriate.

5. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

• A. Early menopause
• B. History of falls
• C. African American race
• D. Obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but can lead to fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis compared to Caucasian or Asian descent. Choice D, obesity, is generally considered a protective factor against osteoporosis due to the increased mechanical loading on bones.

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