ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. A nurse is preparing to administer metoclopramide 10 mg IM. Available is metoclopramide 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
- A. 1 mL
- B. 2 mL
- C. 3 mL
- D. 4 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To administer 10 mg of metoclopramide, the nurse should administer 2 mL (10 mg / 5 mg per mL). Therefore, the correct answer is 2 mL. Choice A (1 mL) is incorrect because it would only deliver 5 mg of metoclopramide, which is half the required dose. Choice C (3 mL) and D (4 mL) are incorrect as they would provide more than the required dose of 10 mg.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
- B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
- C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
- D. HbA1c level less than 7%.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer purified protein derivative (PPD) to a client who has suspected tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin
- B. Administer the injection in the client's thigh
- C. Use an intradermal needle for the injection
- D. Avoid touching the site after injection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin. A wheal indicates that the PPD has been administered correctly, allowing for the proper interpretation of results. Administering the injection in the client's thigh (choice B) is not the recommended site for PPD administration; it should be administered intradermally. Using an 18-gauge needle (choice C) is unnecessary and not the standard practice for PPD administration as a smaller gauge needle is preferred for intradermal injections. Massaging the site after injection (choice D) can lead to inaccurate results by dispersing the solution, so it is important to avoid touching the site after the injection to prevent altering the test results.
4. A nurse is working in an acute care mental health facility and is assessing a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. All-or-nothing thinking.
- B. Euphoric mood.
- C. Disorganized speech.
- D. Hypochondriasis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disorganized speech. Disorganized speech is a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia, characterized by impaired thought processes that lead to incoherent, disjointed communication. All-or-nothing thinking (Choice A) is more commonly associated with cognitive distortions seen in conditions like anxiety disorders. Euphoric mood (Choice B) is not a typical finding in schizophrenia, as individuals with this disorder often display a flat or blunted affect. Hypochondriasis (Choice D) involves a preoccupation with having a serious illness and is not a primary symptom of schizophrenia.
5. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer insulin and glucose
- B. Restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor ECG
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.
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