a nurse is preparing to administer a dose of naloxone which of the following should the nurse assess
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of naloxone. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, which can cause respiratory depression. Assessing the respiratory rate before administering naloxone is crucial to monitor the patient's breathing. Choices A, C, and D are important assessments in general patient care but are not specifically crucial before administering naloxone for opioid overdose.

2. A nurse enters a client’s room and sees smoke coming from the trash can. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a fire emergency, the priority for the nurse is to ensure safety. The correct first action is to evacuate the room, following the RACE protocol, which stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate. Activating the fire alarm alerts others, extinguishing the fire can escalate the situation if not done correctly, and calling the client's family is not a priority in this emergency scenario.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an influenza vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client is allergic to eggs. The influenza vaccine is contraindicated in individuals with an allergy to eggs because some influenza vaccines are produced using egg-based processes. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for administering the influenza vaccine. A low-grade fever, recent surgery, and corticosteroid therapy are not contraindications for receiving the influenza vaccine.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test to ensure accurate results, as it can affect the sample. This is important for obtaining reliable results. Choice A is incorrect because a yearly Pap test is not the standard recommendation for all age groups; instead, it is typically every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65. Choice B is incorrect because Pap tests are not necessarily discontinued following removal of the ovaries; they may still be needed based on the individual's health history and provider recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because while Pap tests are primarily used to detect abnormal cervical cells and cervical cancer, they do not detect viral infections.

5. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

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