Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an overweight client?

• A. 18.5
• B. 24.9
• C. 25
• D. 32

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is considered overweight. Therefore, a BMI of 25 correlates with an overweight client. A BMI of 18.5-24.9 indicates a healthy weight. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall into the healthy weight or obese categories, not overweight.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for electromyography (EMG). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. “You will receive a fixed dose of radioisotope 2 hours before the procedure.”
• B. “Momentary flushing may occur at the beginning of the procedure.”
• C. “You should inform your provider if you are claustrophobic.”
• D. “You should expect insertion of small needle electrodes into the muscles.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to identify muscle weakness and evaluate local nerve responses. This information is crucial for the client to know beforehand. Choice A is incorrect because radioisotopes are not used in EMG procedures. Choice B is incorrect because flushing is not a common occurrence during EMG. Choice C is incorrect because claustrophobia is more relevant to MRI or CT scans, not EMG procedures.

4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 10 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Axillary temperature 36.5°C (97.7°F)
• B. Nasal flaring
• C. Heart rate 158/min
• D. One void since birth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasal flaring can indicate respiratory distress in a newborn, which is a critical finding requiring immediate attention. This may suggest an issue with breathing or lung function. Reporting nasal flaring promptly allows the provider to assess and intervene to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stable. Choices A, C, and D are within normal parameters for a 10-hour-old newborn and do not indicate an immediate concern. An axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) is within the normal range for a newborn. A heart rate of 158/min is typical for a newborn, and one void since birth is an expected finding at this early stage.

5. A healthcare professional is teaching a client about the use of methotrexate. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is a pain reliever
• B. Monitor for signs of infection
• C. It can be taken without food
• D. It is safe to use during pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Educating the client to monitor for signs of infection is crucial for early detection and management. Choice A is incorrect because methotrexate is not a pain reliever; it is commonly used to treat conditions like cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, and psoriasis. Choice C is incorrect because methotrexate is usually recommended to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because methotrexate is known to be harmful during pregnancy and should not be used by pregnant individuals as it can cause birth defects.

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