Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer 1 unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to delay the transfusion?

• A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
• B. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
• C. Temperature 38.2°C (100.8°F)
• D. Hemoglobin 8 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) suggests the possibility of an underlying infection or fever, which should be evaluated before proceeding with the transfusion to prevent complications. Elevated temperature can indicate an immune response to incompatible blood components, increasing the risk of a transfusion reaction. The other vital signs and lab results provided are within acceptable ranges for administering packed RBCs, making choices A, B, and D less likely to cause a delay in the transfusion.

2. A client has been prescribed metformin. What should be included in the teaching?

• A. It can cause weight gain
• B. Take it with food
• C. It is an insulin
• D. Monitor for hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take metformin with food. This is important to minimize gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as metformin is not typically associated with weight gain. Choice C is wrong as metformin is not an insulin but a medication that helps control blood sugar levels. Choice D is also incorrect as metformin is not known to cause hyperglycemia.

3. A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?

• A. Place the client in a prone position
• B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
• C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
• D. Administer flumazenil

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin. The client reports nausea and refuses to eat breakfast. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to eat the toast on the breakfast tray
• B. Administer an antiemetic
• C. Inform the client's provider
• D. Check the client's apical pulse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's apical pulse first. Nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and assessing the client's heart rate is crucial in this situation. Administering an antiemetic or encouraging the client to eat should come after ensuring the client's safety. While informing the provider is important, the immediate concern is to assess for potential digoxin toxicity by checking the client's apical pulse.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

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