a nurse is planning an education session for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus which of the following should the nurse plan to include when te
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning an education session for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include when teaching the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis (sweating) is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia, along with shakiness, confusion, and irritability. These signs help indicate low blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical symptoms associated with hypoglycemia. It is crucial for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus to recognize the early signs of hypoglycemia to take prompt corrective action.

2. A nurse is admitting a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia with severe features. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to initiate seizure precautions for the client. Severe preeclampsia increases the risk of seizures (eclampsia), making it crucial to prioritize the safety of the client. Restricting protein intake (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as seizure prevention takes precedence. While maintaining hydration is essential, starting an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice C) is not the initial action needed for seizure prevention. Encouraging the client to ambulate (Choice D) may not be safe or appropriate considering the severity of preeclampsia and the risk of seizures.

3. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diminished deep tendon reflexes are a sign of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to decreased reflexes. Respiratory rate of 12/min, urine output 40 mL/hr, and systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg are not specific findings of magnesium toxicity. Respiratory depression, oliguria, and hypotension are more concerning signs that require immediate attention.

4. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.

5. While documenting client care, which of the following entries should the nurse identify as an example of implementing client care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering medications as prescribed is a clear example of implementing client care because it involves carrying out a specific aspect of the care plan. Contacting the provider to report client findings is more related to assessment and communication. Reviewing the client's lab results is part of assessment and data collection. Discussing the care plan with the family is focused on collaboration and planning, rather than direct implementation.

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