Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning an education session for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include when teaching the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?

• A. Diaphoresis
• B. Polyuria
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. Thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis (sweating) is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia, along with shakiness, confusion, and irritability. These signs help indicate low blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical symptoms associated with hypoglycemia. It is crucial for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus to recognize the early signs of hypoglycemia to take prompt corrective action.

2. A charge nurse is teaching a new nurse how to clean surfaces contaminated with blood. Which agent should the charge nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Hydrogen peroxide
• B. Chlorhexidine
• C. Isopropyl alcohol
• D. Chlorine bleach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlorine bleach is the most appropriate agent for disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood. It is effective in killing a wide range of pathogens, including viruses. Hydrogen peroxide (Choice A) is not as effective as chlorine bleach for bloodborne pathogen disinfection. Chlorhexidine (Choice B) and isopropyl alcohol (Choice C) are more commonly used for skin antisepsis rather than surface disinfection, making them less suitable options in this scenario.

3. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause a persistent cough
• B. It is a calcium channel blocker
• C. It is safe during pregnancy
• D. It should be taken with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect associated with its use is a persistent cough. This is important information that the client should be aware of. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is not a calcium channel blocker, it is an ACE inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially during the second and third trimesters as it can cause harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril is typically recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, about an hour before meals.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare professional monitor for?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In heart failure, the accumulation of fluid can lead to peripheral edema, which is swelling in the extremities. This is a common sign that healthcare professionals should monitor for. While tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hypotension (low blood pressure) can also occur in heart failure, they are not the primary signs typically associated with this condition. Therefore, peripheral edema is the most relevant sign to monitor in this case.

5. A nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Use a designated stethoscope for the toddler
• B. Wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the toddler
• C. Place the toddler in a negative pressure room
• D. Remove the disposable gown before leaving the toddler's room

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope for the toddler is crucial to reduce the risk of spreading RSV to other patients. Choice B is incorrect because N95 respirator masks are not specifically indicated for RSV. Choice C is unnecessary as RSV does not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Choice D is incorrect because the gown should be removed after leaving the room to prevent transmission of pathogens to other areas.

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