Nursing Elites

1. When developing a care plan for a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which short-term goal is most appropriate?

• A. The patient will experience no episodes of anxiety within the next week.
• B. The patient will learn and practice relaxation techniques.
• C. The patient will avoid all anxiety-provoking situations.
• D. The patient will be medication-free within a month.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B, 'The patient will learn and practice relaxation techniques,' is the most appropriate short-term goal for managing generalized anxiety disorder. Teaching relaxation techniques can help the patient develop coping mechanisms and reduce anxiety levels in the immediate future, making it a realistic and beneficial goal. Options A and C are not feasible in the short term as complete elimination of anxiety episodes or avoidance of all anxiety-provoking situations may not be achievable or practical within a week. Option D is not a suitable short-term goal as it overlooks the potential need for medication in managing generalized anxiety disorder.

2. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine. What is a common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Nausea
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of fluoxetine and should be monitored.

3. A patient with social anxiety disorder is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which symptom is this medication most likely intended to address?

• A. Panic attacks
• B. Tremors and palpitations
• C. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
• D. Depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Beta-blockers are commonly used to alleviate physical symptoms associated with anxiety disorders, such as tremors and palpitations. These medications help manage the autonomic symptoms of anxiety, like increased heart rate and trembling, which are often prominent in social anxiety disorder. Beta-blockers do not primarily target cognitive symptoms like recurrent, intrusive thoughts (choice C), panic attacks (choice A), or depression (choice D) in social anxiety disorder.

4. When working with a patient diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which therapeutic approach is most appropriate?

• A. Encouraging the patient to avoid discussing the traumatic event.
• B. Using exposure therapy to help the patient confront their fears.
• C. Advising the patient to focus on positive thoughts.
• D. Suggesting that the patient keep busy to distract from traumatic memories.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exposure therapy is an evidence-based treatment for PTSD that involves gradually exposing the patient to their traumatic memories in a safe and controlled environment. This approach helps individuals confront and process their fears, reducing the impact of the traumatic event over time. Avoiding discussing the trauma (choice A) may lead to avoidance behaviors and hinder recovery. Focusing on positive thoughts (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying trauma. Keeping busy to distract from memories (choice D) is a form of avoidance that does not help in processing the traumatic experiences. Therefore, using exposure therapy (choice B) is the most appropriate approach to effectively treat PTSD.

5. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-a-week dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar disorder, a lower dosage of lithium is often prescribed to prevent toxicity and maintain stability while minimizing side effects. Lower doses are typically used once the patient has achieved mood stabilization to reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with long-term lithium use.

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