ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who is at risk of developing pressure injuries. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Place the client in a 30-degree lateral position
- C. Encourage the client to reposition every 4 hours
- D. Place the client in a high Fowler's position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Place the client in a 30-degree lateral position. Positioning the client laterally reduces pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and helping prevent pressure injuries. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) increases pressure on the bony prominences, raising the risk of pressure injuries. Similarly, placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) can also increase pressure on certain areas. While encouraging the client to reposition every 4 hours (choice C) is important, the specific lateral positioning is more beneficial in preventing pressure injuries.
2. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application.
- B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin.
- C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch.
- D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to wear gloves when applying the transdermal nicotine patch to prevent the nurse from absorbing nicotine through the skin. Choice A is incorrect because shaving hairy areas of skin is not necessary for applying a transdermal patch. Choice C is incorrect as transdermal patches should be applied immediately after removal from the protective pouch, not necessarily within 1 hour. Choice D is incorrect because the previous patch should be disposed of properly following institutional guidelines, not placed in a tissue.
3. What is the recommended intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?
- A. Administer glucagon
- B. Provide a source of glucose
- C. Monitor blood sugar
- D. Assess vital signs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering glucagon is the recommended intervention for severe hypoglycemia, especially when the patient is unconscious or unable to consume oral glucose. Glucagon helps increase blood glucose levels rapidly by stimulating the release of stored glucose from the liver. Providing a source of glucose (Choice B) can be challenging if the patient is unable to swallow or unconscious, making glucagon a more effective option. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice C) and assessing vital signs (Choice D) are important aspects of managing hypoglycemia but are not the immediate intervention for severe cases where prompt elevation of blood glucose levels is necessary.
4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Monitor ECG and administer insulin
- B. Monitor blood glucose levels and provide fluids
- C. Monitor for muscle weakness and administer calcium gluconate
- D. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide potassium supplements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: When assessing a patient with hyperkalemia, monitoring the ECG and administering insulin are crucial steps. Hyperkalemia can affect the heart's function, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any cardiac abnormalities associated with high potassium levels. Administering insulin, along with glucose, helps shift potassium from the bloodstream into the cells, temporarily lowering the potassium levels. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring blood glucose levels and providing fluids are not the primary interventions for hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring for muscle weakness and administering calcium gluconate are not the first-line treatments for hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate may be used in specific situations to stabilize cardiac cell membranes in severe cases of hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring electrolyte levels and providing potassium supplements would worsen hyperkalemia, as the patient already has elevated potassium levels and does not require additional potassium supplementation.
5. What is the priority for a client with dehydration?
- A. Administer antiemetics to prevent nausea
- B. Monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances
- C. Administer oral rehydration solutions
- D. Administer intravenous fluids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority for a client with dehydration is to monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances. Dehydration can lead to electrolyte disturbances, which can have serious consequences. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the root cause of dehydration. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial, but monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial in managing dehydration. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is important in severe cases of dehydration, but monitoring electrolytes should come first to assess the extent of the imbalance and guide fluid replacement therapy effectively.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access