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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. When communicating with a client admitted for treatment of a substance use disorder, which of the following communication techniques should be identified as a barrier to therapeutic communication?
- A. Offering advice
- B. Reflecting
- C. Listening attentively
- D. Giving information
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Offering advice is a barrier to therapeutic communication because it can hinder the client's ability to explore their own solutions and feelings. It may come across as judgmental or dismissive of the client's experience, leading to a breakdown in trust and hindering the therapeutic relationship. Reflecting (choice B) is a helpful technique that involves paraphrasing or restating the client's words to show understanding. Listening attentively (choice C) is crucial for building rapport and demonstrating empathy. Giving information (choice D) is also important but should be done in a way that supports the client's understanding and autonomy, rather than directing their choices.
2. A patient with social anxiety disorder is starting cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which statement by the nurse best explains the purpose of this therapy?
- A. CBT will help you understand and change your thought patterns.
- B. CBT will focus on exploring your childhood experiences.
- C. CBT will teach you relaxation techniques to use in social situations.
- D. CBT will help you avoid situations that cause anxiety.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a structured, short-term psychotherapy that aims to help patients identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety. By understanding and altering these patterns, individuals can learn to manage and alleviate their symptoms effectively. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the purpose of CBT for social anxiety disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because while childhood experiences may be explored, the primary focus of CBT is on thought patterns and behaviors in the present. C is incorrect because although relaxation techniques may be a component of CBT, the primary goal is not just to teach relaxation but to address underlying cognitive and behavioral patterns. D is incorrect because the goal of CBT is not avoidance but rather to confront and manage anxiety-provoking situations.
3. When a patient with schizophrenia is taking haloperidol, what is a priority assessment for the nurse?
- A. Assessing for signs of tardive dyskinesia
- B. Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- C. Checking for signs of depression
- D. Monitoring for changes in appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is crucial for patients taking haloperidol. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, unstable blood pressure, confusion, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction. Early detection and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications.
4. A patient with panic disorder is prescribed selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). What should the nurse include in the patient’s education?
- A. SSRIs are fast-acting medications that can relieve anxiety immediately.
- B. It may take several weeks for the full therapeutic effects of SSRIs to be felt.
- C. SSRIs have a high potential for abuse and dependence.
- D. The patient should discontinue the medication once they feel better.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Patients prescribed with SSRIs need to be educated that it may take several weeks for the full therapeutic effects of the medication to be experienced. This delay is important for patient understanding and compliance with the treatment plan. Choice A is incorrect because SSRIs do not provide immediate relief and may take weeks to show significant improvement. Choice C is inaccurate as SSRIs are not known for having a high potential for abuse and dependence. Choice D is incorrect as patients should never discontinue medication abruptly without consulting their healthcare provider.
5. What is the primary goal of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) when treating a patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
- A. To help the patient confront and process traumatic memories
- B. To help the patient change negative thought patterns
- C. To help the patient develop relaxation techniques
- D. To help the patient avoid triggers
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary goal of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) in treating patients with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is to help them confront and process traumatic memories. EMDR uses bilateral stimulation to facilitate the processing of distressing memories, leading to their desensitization and reprocessing, ultimately reducing PTSD symptoms.
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