Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a recent diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Methotrexate
• B. Pyridostigmine
• C. Baclofen
• D. Atropine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyridostigmine is the drug of choice for treating myasthenia gravis because it enhances communication between nerves and muscles by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. Methotrexate (choice A) is not indicated for myasthenia gravis but is used in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Baclofen (choice C) is a muscle relaxant used for conditions like spasticity. Atropine (choice D) is not typically used in myasthenia gravis as it can worsen muscle weakness.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an indication of magnesium toxicity?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Increased urinary output
• D. Hyperreflexia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to diminished deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output. Diminished deep tendon reflexes are an early sign of magnesium toxicity and indicate the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Increased urinary output (choice C) is also not a common finding in magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (choice D) is not consistent with the expected findings of magnesium toxicity, which typically causes decreased reflexes.

3. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

4. A client who signed an informed consent form for surgery but has since expressed doubts about the need for surgery is being assisted by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. You should not worry about it
• B. The surgeon will answer your questions before surgery
• C. It’s too late to cancel the surgery
• D. You need to trust the medical team

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should encourage the client to express concerns and ensure that the surgeon addresses any questions prior to the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's worries. Choice C is incorrect because it does not respect the client's autonomy in decision-making. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's doubts directly or provide reassurance.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who reports burning around the peripheral IV site. Which finding should the nurse identify as a manifestation of infiltration?

• A. Redness at the site
• B. Warmth around the site
• C. Edema
• D. Pain at the site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Edema at the IV site indicates that IV solution has leaked into the extravascular tissue, which is a sign of infiltration. Redness, warmth, and pain at the site are more indicative of phlebitis, not infiltration. Phlebitis is characterized by redness, warmth, and pain along the vein where the IV is placed, while infiltration involves the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissue.

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