Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client has an intrauterine pressure catheter and an internal fetal scalp electrode for monitoring. Which of the following is an indication that the nurse should discontinue the infusion?

• A. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes
• B. Contraction duration of 100 seconds
• C. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability
• D. Fetal heart rate of 118/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds indicates potential uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and decreased uterine perfusion. Prolonged contractions may reduce oxygen supply to the fetus, putting it at risk. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. The other options do not raise immediate concerns that would necessitate discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes is within a normal range. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability and a rate of 118/min are both reassuring signs of fetal well-being.

2. A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?

• A. Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.
• B. Take the medication only if you feel nauseous.
• C. Avoid drinking any fluids while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can cause extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle spasms, particularly of the face and neck. These symptoms should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice B is incorrect because metoclopramide is not meant to be taken only when feeling nauseous; it is used to treat nausea and vomiting. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to stay hydrated while taking metoclopramide. Choice D is incorrect because metoclopramide is usually taken before meals to improve gastric emptying, not necessarily on an empty stomach.

3. A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. “Your provider will use stool samples from your bowel movement to perform the test.”
• B. “Your provider will prescribe a stimulant laxative prior to the procedure to cleanse the bowel.”
• C. “You should begin biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at 50 years old.”
• D. “You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid corticosteroids and vitamin C prior to testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect because stool samples from bowel movements, not from digital rectal examinations, are used for FOBT. Choice B is incorrect because a stimulant laxative is not typically prescribed before FOBT; rather, the client is instructed to follow specific dietary restrictions. Choice C is incorrect because biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening usually begins at 50 years old, not 40.

4. A client is being educated by a nurse on nutritional intake. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake
• B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake
• C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake
• D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Carbohydrates should make up 45-65% of daily caloric intake as they are the body’s main source of energy. This aligns with general dietary recommendations. Choice B is incorrect as protein should typically make up about 10-35% of daily caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is also incorrect, as carbohydrates should ideally be between 45-65%, not 30%. Choice D is incorrect because protein should generally account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.

5. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Increased energy levels
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. Peripheral edema, the accumulation of fluid causing swelling in the extremities, is a classic sign of heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the heart's reduced pumping efficiency leads to fluid backup in the circulatory system. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased heart rate is not typically associated with heart failure; instead, tachycardia or an increased heart rate may be observed. Increased energy levels are not an expected finding in heart failure, as this condition often causes fatigue and weakness. Hyperglycemia is not a direct sign of heart failure; however, it can be present in individuals with uncontrolled diabetes or as a result of certain treatments, but it is not a specific indicator of heart failure.

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