ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client has an intrauterine pressure catheter and an internal fetal scalp electrode for monitoring. Which of the following is an indication that the nurse should discontinue the infusion?
- A. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes
- B. Contraction duration of 100 seconds
- C. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability
- D. Fetal heart rate of 118/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds indicates potential uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and decreased uterine perfusion. Prolonged contractions may reduce oxygen supply to the fetus, putting it at risk. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. The other options do not raise immediate concerns that would necessitate discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes is within a normal range. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability and a rate of 118/min are both reassuring signs of fetal well-being.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased level of consciousness
- B. Inability to identify common objects
- C. Poor problem-solving ability
- D. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with schizophrenia, poor problem-solving ability is a common assessment finding due to impaired cognitive function associated with the disorder. This impairment can manifest as difficulties in decision-making and problem-solving. Choice A, decreased level of consciousness, is not a typical finding in schizophrenia. Choice B, inability to identify common objects, is more indicative of conditions like dementia rather than schizophrenia. Choice D, preoccupation with somatic disturbances, is more characteristic of somatic symptom disorder rather than schizophrenia.
3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?
- A. Potassium supplements
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Escitalopram
- D. Magnesium supplements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can increase potassium levels in the body. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid potassium supplements to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not have significant interactions with lisinopril that would lead to adverse effects like hyperkalemia.
4. A client with staphylococcus epidermidis is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with this antibiotic therapy.
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Constipation
- C. Infusion reaction
- D. Immunosuppression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct adverse effect associated with vancomycin therapy is an infusion reaction, known as Red Man Syndrome. This reaction presents with rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. It is essential to administer vancomycin over at least 60 minutes to prevent these symptoms. Hepatotoxicity, constipation, and immunosuppression are not commonly associated with vancomycin use. Ototoxicity and renal toxicity are significant risks with prolonged vancomycin therapy.
5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?
- A. Allergy history
- B. Vital signs
- C. Renal function
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.
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