Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client has an intrauterine pressure catheter and an internal fetal scalp electrode for monitoring. Which of the following is an indication that the nurse should discontinue the infusion?

• A. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes
• B. Contraction duration of 100 seconds
• C. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability
• D. Fetal heart rate of 118/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds indicates potential uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and decreased uterine perfusion. Prolonged contractions may reduce oxygen supply to the fetus, putting it at risk. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. The other options do not raise immediate concerns that would necessitate discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes is within a normal range. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability and a rate of 118/min are both reassuring signs of fetal well-being.

2. A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. History of diuretic use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.

3. A client who has a new prescription for simvastatin is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medication in the morning.
• B. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
• C. I should expect my cholesterol levels to increase initially.
• D. I will need to have my kidney function checked every 3 months.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Grapefruit juice can increase the risk of toxicity with simvastatin, so clients should avoid consuming it while on the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of medication administration should be based on healthcare provider instructions. Choice C is incorrect because simvastatin is prescribed to lower cholesterol levels. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring kidney function is not specifically related to simvastatin therapy.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin and NPH insulin. What is the proper sequence of events the nurse should follow?

• A. Inspect the vials for contamination.
• B. Withdraw regular insulin first, then NPH.
• C. Inject air into the NPH insulin vial first.
• D. Roll the NPH insulin vial between the hands to mix.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence of events for administering regular insulin and NPH insulin begins with inspecting the vials for contamination to ensure patient safety. Rolling the NPH insulin vial between the hands to mix and injecting air into the NPH insulin vial should follow the inspection step. Afterward, the nurse should inject air into the regular insulin vial and then withdraw the regular insulin first. Option A is the correct answer as it outlines the initial crucial step in the administration process. Option B is incorrect as it provides the incorrect order of withdrawing the insulins. Option C is incorrect as injecting air into the NPH insulin vial should come after inspecting the vials. Option D is incorrect as rolling the NPH insulin vial should be done after inspecting the vials and injecting air into the NPH insulin vial.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Administer oxytocin IV
• B. Perform fundal massage
• C. Check vital signs
• D. Encourage the client to void

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing fundal massage is the priority action to take in this situation. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which can reduce postpartum bleeding. Uterine atony, the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage, can be addressed effectively through fundal massage. Administering oxytocin IV, although important, should come after initiating fundal massage. Checking vital signs is also crucial but not the immediate priority. Encouraging the client to void does not directly address the heavy bleeding and passing of large clots; hence, it is not the priority action.

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