a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
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ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

2. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement for a client with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with hyperkalemia is to administer calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps counteract the effects of hyperkalemia by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may not effectively lower potassium levels. Administering a diuretic (Choice C) or sodium bicarbonate (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia and may not address the immediate need to lower potassium levels.

3. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.

4. What action should the nurse take for a client struggling to void after having an indwelling catheter removed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to pour warm water over the client's perineum. This intervention helps stimulate urination after catheter removal by providing warmth and promoting relaxation of the muscles. Assessing for bladder distention after 2 hours (Choice A) is not the initial intervention to facilitate voiding. Encouraging the client to try urinating in a sitting position (Choice B) may be uncomfortable if the client is struggling to void. Restricting the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is not appropriate as it can further exacerbate the issue by concentrating the urine.

5. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

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