Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Administer potassium supplements and monitor ECG
• B. Restrict fluid intake and provide a high-sodium diet
• C. Monitor sodium levels and provide insulin therapy
• D. Provide calcium supplements and monitor for hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypokalemia is managed by administering potassium supplements to correct the low potassium levels in the body. Monitoring the ECG is essential because low potassium levels can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B is incorrect as restricting fluid intake and providing a high-sodium diet are not appropriate for managing hypokalemia. Choice C is incorrect because hypokalemia involves low potassium levels, not sodium levels, and insulin therapy does not directly address this issue. Choice D is incorrect as calcium supplements are not indicated for hypokalemia, and monitoring for hyperkalemia is not relevant in this case.

2. Which of the following is the best intervention for managing dehydration?

• A. Administer antiemetics to prevent nausea
• B. Monitor fluid and electrolyte levels
• C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids
• D. Administer intravenous fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best intervention for managing dehydration is to monitor fluid and electrolyte levels. This approach allows healthcare providers to assess the severity of dehydration, determine appropriate fluid replacement therapy, and prevent complications. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (Choice C) may be appropriate for mild dehydration but can be inadequate for moderate to severe cases. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is crucial for severe dehydration or cases where oral rehydration is ineffective, but monitoring fluid and electrolyte levels should precede this intervention.

3. What is an essential nursing intervention for a client experiencing delirium?

• A. Control behavioral symptoms with low-dose psychotropics
• B. Identify the underlying causative condition
• C. Increase environmental stimulation
• D. Administer antipsychotic medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - 'Identify the underlying causative condition.' When a client is experiencing delirium, it is crucial to determine the root cause of this acute change in mental status. This can involve a thorough assessment to identify any medical conditions, medications, infections, or environmental factors that may be contributing to the delirium. By pinpointing the underlying cause, appropriate interventions can be implemented to address the specific issue. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because controlling behavioral symptoms with low-dose psychotropics, increasing environmental stimulation, and administering antipsychotic medication do not target the primary need of identifying and addressing the causative condition of delirium.

4. What is the best strategy for managing fatigue in a client who has had an acute myocardial infarction and is concerned about self-care?

• A. Instruct the client to rest completely and avoid all self-care tasks
• B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods
• C. Assign assistive personnel to complete all self-care tasks
• D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care tasks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best strategy for managing fatigue in a client who has had an acute myocardial infarction and is concerned about self-care is to encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods. This approach helps the client regain independence while managing fatigue effectively. Choice A is incorrect because complete rest without any self-care tasks may hinder recovery and independence. Choice C is not the best option as it does not promote the client's independence. Choice D, while involving family support, does not empower the client to regain self-care abilities.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the medical-surgical unit following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following should the nurse identify as a priority nursing assessment after reviewing the client's information?

• A. Level of consciousness.
• B. Skin turgor.
• C. Deep-tendon reflexes.
• D. Bowel sounds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Following a TURP procedure, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate potential postoperative complications such as hemorrhage or shock. Skin turgor (choice B) is more related to hydration status, deep-tendon reflexes (choice C) are not the priority post-TURP, and bowel sounds (choice D) are important but not the priority in this situation.

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