Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Administer potassium supplements and monitor ECG
• B. Restrict fluid intake and provide a high-sodium diet
• C. Monitor sodium levels and provide insulin therapy
• D. Provide calcium supplements and monitor for hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypokalemia is managed by administering potassium supplements to correct the low potassium levels in the body. Monitoring the ECG is essential because low potassium levels can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B is incorrect as restricting fluid intake and providing a high-sodium diet are not appropriate for managing hypokalemia. Choice C is incorrect because hypokalemia involves low potassium levels, not sodium levels, and insulin therapy does not directly address this issue. Choice D is incorrect as calcium supplements are not indicated for hypokalemia, and monitoring for hyperkalemia is not relevant in this case.

2. Which of the following is the best strategy for managing dehydration in a client?

• A. Encourage the client to drink more water
• B. Monitor fluid and electrolyte levels frequently
• C. Administer oral rehydration solutions
• D. Increase the IV fluid rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best strategy for managing dehydration in a client is to monitor fluid and electrolyte levels frequently. This allows healthcare providers to assess the client's hydration status accurately and make informed decisions regarding treatment. Encouraging the client to drink more water (Choice A) may not be sufficient if the dehydration is severe and requires specific interventions. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial but should be guided by monitoring the client's condition. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice D) may be necessary in certain cases, but it is not always the initial or best approach, as monitoring is crucial to avoid fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

3. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Fever
• B. Ataxia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ataxia, which refers to difficulty with coordination, is a common symptom seen in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Nystagmus, the involuntary eye movement, can also occur in multiple sclerosis but is not as common as ataxia. Fatigue is a common symptom in multiple sclerosis, but ataxia is more specific. Fever is not a typical finding associated with multiple sclerosis.

4. What are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

• A. Poor hygiene and dehydration
• B. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy
• C. Use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest
• D. Family history and obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor hygiene and dehydration are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs). While choices B, C, and D may play a role in certain cases, poor hygiene and dehydration are more universally recognized as key factors contributing to UTIs. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy (choice B) can also increase the risk of UTIs, but they are not as universal as poor hygiene and dehydration. Choices C and D, the use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest, and family history and obesity, respectively, are risk factors for UTIs but are not as commonly associated as poor hygiene and dehydration.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

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