Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Administer potassium supplements and monitor ECG
• B. Restrict fluid intake and provide a high-sodium diet
• C. Monitor sodium levels and provide insulin therapy
• D. Provide calcium supplements and monitor for hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypokalemia is managed by administering potassium supplements to correct the low potassium levels in the body. Monitoring the ECG is essential because low potassium levels can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B is incorrect as restricting fluid intake and providing a high-sodium diet are not appropriate for managing hypokalemia. Choice C is incorrect because hypokalemia involves low potassium levels, not sodium levels, and insulin therapy does not directly address this issue. Choice D is incorrect as calcium supplements are not indicated for hypokalemia, and monitoring for hyperkalemia is not relevant in this case.

2. How should a healthcare provider assess a patient with sepsis?

• A. Monitor vital signs and administer fluids
• B. Monitor for fever and administer antibiotics
• C. Check for tachycardia and elevated white blood cell count
• D. Administer fluids and provide nutritional support

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs to assess the patient's condition and administer fluids to maintain circulation. This approach helps in stabilizing blood pressure and perfusion. While monitoring for fever and administering antibiotics (choice B) is important in managing sepsis, the initial priority lies in assessing and stabilizing the patient's hemodynamic status. Checking for tachycardia and elevated white blood cell count (choice C) can be part of the assessment but does not encompass the immediate intervention needed in sepsis. Administering fluids and providing nutritional support (choice D) are essential in managing sepsis, but the primary step should be to assess the patient's condition through vital sign monitoring.

3. When caring for a client diagnosed with delirium, what condition should the nurse prioritize investigating?

• A. Investigate medication history
• B. Investigate sensory deficits
• C. Investigate cognitive functioning
• D. Investigate for signs of infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to investigate for signs of infection when caring for a client diagnosed with delirium. Infections can frequently cause or worsen delirium. While investigating medication history, sensory deficits, and cognitive functioning may be important in the overall care of the client, when prioritizing, the nurse should first rule out or address potential infections due to their significant impact on delirium.

4. A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching about car seat safety with the guardian of a newborn. Which of the following statements by the guardian indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will position the car seat in the front seat
• B. I will secure the car seat in the car by using the seatbelt
• C. I will use a rear-facing car seat
• D. I will install the car seat facing forward

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using a rear-facing car seat is the safest position for a newborn. Newborns should always be placed in a rear-facing car seat in the back seat of the vehicle to provide optimal safety in case of a crash. Choice A is incorrect because placing the car seat in the front seat is not safe due to the presence of airbags. Choice B is incorrect as securing the car seat using the seatbelt is not specific to the correct positioning of the car seat. Choice D is incorrect because installing the car seat facing forward is not recommended for newborns as it does not provide the same level of protection as a rear-facing position.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

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