ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A patient is receiving chemotherapy and reports nausea. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
- A. Eat foods served hot
- B. Drink liquids between meals
- C. Eat dry cereal
- D. Choose foods with a strong aroma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient receiving chemotherapy and experiencing nausea is to suggest eating dry, bland foods like cereal. These types of foods are often better tolerated as they are less likely to trigger nausea compared to aromatic or hot foods. Drinking liquids between meals, as suggested in option B, can be helpful to prevent dehydration but may not specifically address the nausea. Eating foods with a strong aroma, as in option D, may actually worsen nausea in patients undergoing chemotherapy.
2. A client with cholecystitis has been prescribed a low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections by the client indicates understanding of the education?
- A. Roast beef with gravy, mashed potatoes, ice cream
- B. Macaroni and cheese, salad, pudding
- C. Creamed chicken on a roll with peas
- D. Roast turkey, rice pilaf, green beans
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Roast turkey is a lean protein option suitable for a low-fat diet. Rice pilaf and green beans are also low in fat. Choices A, B, and C contain high-fat ingredients like gravy, cheese, cream, and ice cream, which are not suitable for a low-fat diet.
3. A client is prescribed tramadol for pain management. Which of the following should the nurse educate the client about?
- A. It is a non-opioid analgesic
- B. It can cause sedation
- C. It has no risk for dependence
- D. It can be taken as needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tramadol can cause sedation, so the nurse should educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because tramadol is actually an opioid analgesic. Choice C is incorrect as tramadol does carry a risk for dependence, especially with prolonged use. Choice D is not entirely accurate as tramadol is usually prescribed on a scheduled basis rather than as needed.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for an antidepressant. The client reports experiencing dry mouth. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?
- A. Decrease fluid intake.
- B. Chew sugarless gum.
- C. Avoid using mouthwash.
- D. Increase intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to chew sugarless gum. Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth by stimulating saliva production, which is a common side effect of many antidepressants. Decreasing fluid intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can worsen dry mouth. Avoiding mouthwash (choice C) is not as effective as chewing gum in stimulating saliva. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice D) is not directly related to managing dry mouth caused by antidepressants.
5. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
- A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- B. Increased blood pressure
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Hyperreflexia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, decreased deep tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can lead to respiratory depression and other serious complications, requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased blood pressure, tachypnea, and hyperreflexia are not typical findings associated with magnesium toxicity.
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