a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g iv every 12 hours the client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700 th
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with chronic renal failure is to restrict protein intake to the RDA. This is important because limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste products that the kidneys are unable to efficiently excrete. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) may further burden the kidneys, increasing the risk of fluid overload. Increasing dietary potassium (choice C) is not recommended in chronic renal failure as impaired kidneys have difficulty regulating potassium levels. Encouraging foods high in sodium (choice D) is also not appropriate as excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, which are detrimental in renal failure.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a vaccine to a child. Which of the following should the provider verify?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider should verify the child's previous vaccination history to ensure they are up to date with immunizations. This is important to prevent unnecessary or duplicate vaccinations and ensure the child is adequately protected against vaccine-preventable diseases. Checking for allergies to eggs is relevant for certain vaccines like the influenza vaccine but is not the top priority in this scenario. Family medical history and growth charts are not directly related to the administration of vaccines and are not as crucial as confirming the child's vaccination status.

4. A healthcare provider is providing education to a client about atorvastatin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain and liver function abnormalities. Monitoring for muscle pain is essential as it can be a sign of a serious side effect called rhabdomyolysis. While liver function tests are necessary before starting atorvastatin, checking them continuously may not be required. Avoiding sun exposure and reporting gastrointestinal symptoms are not directly associated with atorvastatin use.

5. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

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