a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g iv every 12 hours the client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700 th
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

2. A client is being taught about the use of levothyroxine. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When educating a client about levothyroxine, it is important to emphasize the need to monitor for signs of hyperthyroidism. Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, preferably in the morning, to maximize its absorption. Choice A is incorrect as it should not be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as levothyroxine is not a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect as levothyroxine is usually taken in the morning.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg indicates hypercapnia, which is common in clients with emphysema but may require further treatment if it leads to respiratory acidosis or distress. Elevated PaCO2 levels can indicate inadequate ventilation and impaired gas exchange, potentially leading to respiratory acidosis. The other results fall within normal ranges or compensated values for a client with chronic emphysema and do not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of cardiac disease. Which position should the nurse recommend to promote optimal cardiac output?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The left lateral position is the correct choice to promote optimal cardiac output in a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation with cardiac disease. This position improves venous return and decreases pressure on the vena cava, helping optimize cardiac output. Standing (choice B) would not be recommended as it may decrease venous return. The supine position (choice C) should be avoided in pregnant clients with cardiac disease as it can compress the vena cava, reducing cardiac output and potentially causing hypotension. The chest (choice A) is not a valid position recommendation for optimizing cardiac output in this scenario.

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