a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g iv every 12 hours the client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700 th
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

2. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.

3. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a narcotic medication. After administration, the nurse is left with an unused portion. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when left with an unused portion of a narcotic medication is to discard the medication with another nurse as a witness. This procedure ensures accountability and proper disposal of controlled substances. Choice A is incorrect as discarding in the trash can lead to potential misuse or environmental harm. Choice B is incorrect because returning controlled substances to the pharmacy is not the appropriate method for disposal. Choice D is incorrect as storing the medication for future use is not permitted with controlled substances.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.

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