Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

• A. 2100
• B. 900
• C. 1300
• D. 1800

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

2. A nurse is updating a plan of care after evaluating a client who has dysphagia. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Have the client lie down after meals
• B. Encourage the client to speak while eating
• C. Have the client sit upright for 1 hour following meals
• D. Offer thin liquids with meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dysphagia is to have them sit upright for 1 hour following meals. This position facilitates swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because having the client lie down after meals can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as talking while eating can lead to choking. Choice D is incorrect as thin liquids may be harder for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.

3. A client has been prescribed raloxiphene. As the nurse, you know that raloxiphene is used to treat:

• A. Migraines
• B. Hypertension
• C. Osteoporosis
• D. Heart disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Raloxiphene (Evista) is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used primarily to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures by mimicking the effects of estrogen on bone tissue. It is not indicated for the treatment of migraines, hypertension, or heart disease. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis (Choice C). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as raloxiphene is not used to treat migraines, hypertension, or heart disease.

4. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

• A. Suppression of beta2 receptors.
• B. Suppression of airway mucus production.
• C. Fortification of bones.
• D. Suppression of candidiasis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.

5. A nurse is reviewing the guidelines for reporting nationally notifiable infectious diseases. What disease should the nurse report to the CDC?

• A. Measles
• B. Hepatitis A
• C. Lyme disease
• D. Zika

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Lyme disease. Lyme disease must be reported to the CDC as it is a nationally notifiable infectious disease. It is spread by ticks and can lead to significant health issues if not monitored. Measles, Hepatitis A, and Zika are also important infectious diseases, but in this case, Lyme disease is the appropriate choice based on the information provided.

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