Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

• A. 2100
• B. 900
• C. 1300
• D. 1800

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

2. A client who has undergone a cesarean birth is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Limit stair climbing for the first few weeks
• B. Avoid lifting anything heavier than the newborn
• C. Use a pillow to support the abdomen when coughing or sneezing
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a cesarean birth, it is important for the client to follow specific instructions for optimal recovery. Limiting stair climbing reduces strain on the incision site, aiding in healing (Choice A). Avoiding lifting anything heavier than the newborn prevents stress on the incision, promoting recovery (Choice B). Using a pillow to support the abdomen during coughing or sneezing helps reduce discomfort and protect the incision, preventing sudden movements or strain (Choice C). Therefore, all the options provided are crucial post-cesarean birth instructions to ensure proper healing and recovery. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of post-cesarean care, making Option D the correct answer.

3. A healthcare professional is planning a community education program about colorectal cancer. Which of the following risk factors should the professional identify as modifiable?

• A. Family history
• B. Smoking
• C. Age
• D. Gender

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoking. Smoking is a modifiable risk factor for colorectal cancer. It is within an individual's control to quit smoking, thereby reducing their risk of developing colorectal cancer. Choices A, C, and D are non-modifiable risk factors. Family history, age, and gender are factors that individuals cannot change or control. While family history can influence risk, it is not something that can be modified. Age and gender are also non-modifiable factors when it comes to colorectal cancer risk.

4. A client who is 8 hours postpartum asks the nurse if she will need to receive Rh immune globulin. The client is gravida 2, para 2, and her blood type is AB negative. The newborn’s blood type is B positive. Which of the following statements is appropriate?

• A. You only need to receive Rh immune globulin if you have a positive blood type.
• B. You should receive Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery.
• C. Both you and your baby should receive Rh immune globulin at your 6-week appointment.
• D. Immune globulin is not necessary since this is your second pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rh-negative mothers who give birth to an Rh-positive baby should receive Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery to prevent the development of antibodies in future pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh-negative individuals are the ones who require Rh immune globulin. Choice C is incorrect as the administration of Rh immune globulin is time-sensitive and not typically scheduled for a 6-week appointment. Choice D is incorrect because Rh immune globulin is necessary to prevent sensitization regardless of the number of pregnancies.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal hypoxia
• B. Abruptio placentae
• C. Post-maturity
• D. Head compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When early decelerations are noted on the fetal monitor tracing, it indicates fetal head compression, which is typically a benign finding associated with the progress of labor. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are often not a cause for concern as they are a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the expected outcome of early decelerations. Fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, and post-maturity would present with different patterns on the fetal monitor tracing and would require different interventions.

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