ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?
- A. 2100
- B. 900
- C. 1300
- D. 1800
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of enalapril. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Potassium levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to manage hypertension. It is crucial to evaluate the patient's blood pressure before administering enalapril to ensure it is within safe limits. Assessing other parameters like heart rate, serum creatinine, and potassium levels is also important but assessing blood pressure takes precedence due to the medication's mechanism of action and potential effects on blood pressure regulation.
3. A client is experiencing suicidal thoughts and states, 'Why not end my misery?' What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Why do you think your life isn’t worth living anymore?
- B. Do you have a plan to end your life?
- C. I need to understand what you mean by misery.
- D. You can trust me to share your thoughts.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do you have a plan to end your life?' When a client expresses suicidal thoughts, it is crucial to assess the immediate risk. Inquiring about a specific plan can help determine the seriousness of the situation. Choice A is less direct and may not provide a clear indication of the immediate risk. Choice C focuses on the interpretation of 'misery' rather than assessing the risk of suicide. Choice D offers support but does not address the critical assessment of the client's immediate safety.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following should the nurse do?
- A. Check INR levels
- B. Administer it with food
- C. Monitor blood glucose
- D. Assess liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check INR levels. Before administering warfarin, it is crucial to check the INR levels to ensure they are within the therapeutic range. This helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice B, administering it with food, is incorrect as warfarin should typically be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C, monitoring blood glucose, is unrelated to the administration of warfarin. Choice D, assessing liver function, is important but not the immediate action required before administering warfarin.
5. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause a persistent cough
- B. It is a calcium channel blocker
- C. It is safe during pregnancy
- D. It should be taken with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect associated with its use is a persistent cough. This is important information that the client should be aware of. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is not a calcium channel blocker, it is an ACE inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially during the second and third trimesters as it can cause harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril is typically recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, about an hour before meals.
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