Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

2. A healthcare provider is planning to administer medications to a client who is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water.
• B. Administer medications through a secondary infusion.
• C. Mix medications with the enteral feeding.
• D. Flush the NG tube with 30 mL of water before and after administering medications.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flushing the NG tube with water before and after administering medications is essential to prevent clogging of the tube and ensure proper delivery of medication. This practice helps maintain tube patency and decreases the risk of obstruction, which could compromise the client's treatment and nutrition. By flushing the tube, the healthcare provider ensures that the medication is completely delivered and that there are no residual drug particles left in the tube, which could lead to blockages or inconsistent dosing. Therefore, flushing the NG tube is a crucial step in the safe administration of medications to clients receiving enteral feedings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Dissolving medications in sterile water (Choice A) may not be suitable for all drugs, as some medications may require specific diluents. Administering medications through a secondary infusion (Choice B) is not the standard practice for enteral medication administration. Mixing medications with the enteral feeding (Choice C) can cause interactions between medications and the feeding formula, affecting their absorption and effectiveness.

3. Following a total hip arthroplasty, what intervention should the healthcare provider implement for the client?

• A. Place a pillow between the client's legs.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• C. Position the client on the operative side.
• D. Keep the client’s legs adducted.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a pillow between the client's legs is crucial post hip arthroplasty surgery to prevent hip dislocation. This intervention helps maintain proper alignment and prevents legs from crossing midline, reducing the risk of hip prosthesis dislocation. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees, positioning the client on the operative side, or keeping the client's legs adducted are not recommended postoperative interventions for a total hip arthroplasty, as they can increase the risk of complications and compromise the surgical site.

4. A healthcare professional is educating a client with osteoporosis about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the professional recommend?

• A. Green beans
• B. Fortified cereal
• C. Red meat
• D. White bread

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fortified cereal is the correct answer as it is an excellent choice for individuals with osteoporosis due to its high calcium and vitamin D content, both essential nutrients for bone health. These nutrients help in maintaining bone density and strength, which is crucial for individuals with osteoporosis. Green beans (choice A) do not provide as much calcium and vitamin D as fortified cereal. Red meat (choice C) is a good source of protein but is not as rich in calcium and vitamin D compared to fortified cereal. White bread (choice D) lacks the essential nutrients needed for bone health, making it a less suitable choice for individuals with osteoporosis.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

Similar Questions