ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet
1. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?
- A. Discard the first voiding.
- B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
- C. Collect the first voiding.
- D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.
2. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Tremors
- B. Urine retention
- C. Kussmaul respirations
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.
3. When educating a client on the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Shake the inhaler before use.
- B. Inhale quickly and deeply.
- C. Use the inhaler as needed.
- D. Do not use a spacer with the inhaler.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Shaking the inhaler before use is crucial to ensure proper mixing of the medication. This action helps distribute the medication evenly, allowing for consistent dosing with each use. It is a vital step in using a metered-dose inhaler correctly to optimize its effectiveness in managing respiratory conditions.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare provider select?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Dorsogluteal muscle
- C. Vastus lateralis muscle
- D. Rectus femoris muscle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injections in adults due to its accessibility and muscle mass. It is located in the upper arm and provides a sufficient area for injection. The deltoid muscle is preferred for administering vaccines and other medications that require IM administration. Choice B, the dorsogluteal muscle, is not recommended for intramuscular injections due to the proximity of major nerves and blood vessels in that area, which can lead to nerve damage or injury. Choice C, the vastus lateralis muscle, is more commonly used for infants and young children, while choice D, the rectus femoris muscle, is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.
5. A client with renal calculi is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
- B. I should decrease my intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
- D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because decreasing the intake of calcium-rich foods can help manage and prevent the formation of renal calculi. Excessive calcium intake can contribute to the formation of these stones, so reducing calcium-rich foods is a key dietary modification for individuals with renal calculi. Choice A is incorrect as increasing calcium-rich foods can exacerbate the condition. Choice C is incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can lead to more stone formation due to increased calcium excretion. Choice D is incorrect as potassium-rich foods do not directly contribute to the formation of renal calculi.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access