Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

2. When planning to perform a sterile dressing change for a client, which of the following actions should a healthcare professional take?

• A. Wear sterile gloves to remove the old dressing.
• B. Cleanse the wound with an antiseptic solution.
• C. Use clean gloves to apply the new dressing.
• D. Open sterile supplies before donning sterile gloves.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Opening sterile supplies before donning sterile gloves is a critical step in maintaining the sterility of the supplies during a dressing change procedure. By doing so, the healthcare professional ensures that they do not touch non-sterile surfaces with their hands once sterile gloves are worn, reducing the risk of introducing pathogens to the wound and minimizing the potential for contamination.

3. A client reports difficulty sleeping at night, which interferes with daily functioning. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to this client?

• A. Avoid beverages containing caffeine
• B. Take a sleep medication regularly at bedtime
• C. Watch television for 30 minutes in bed to relax before falling asleep
• D. Advise the client to take several naps during the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid beverages containing caffeine. Caffeine is a stimulant that can interfere with sleep, making it difficult for the client to fall asleep at night. Taking sleep medication regularly (choice B) may not address the root cause of the sleep difficulty and can lead to dependency. Watching television in bed (choice C) can actually stimulate the brain and hinder relaxation before sleep. Advising the client to take several naps during the day (choice D) can disrupt the sleep-wake cycle further. Therefore, recommending the avoidance of caffeine-containing beverages is the most appropriate intervention to help the client improve their ability to sleep at night and function better during the day.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare provider select?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Dorsogluteal muscle
• C. Vastus lateralis muscle
• D. Rectus femoris muscle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injections in adults due to its accessibility and muscle mass. It is located in the upper arm and provides a sufficient area for injection. The deltoid muscle is preferred for administering vaccines and other medications that require IM administration. Choice B, the dorsogluteal muscle, is not recommended for intramuscular injections due to the proximity of major nerves and blood vessels in that area, which can lead to nerve damage or injury. Choice C, the vastus lateralis muscle, is more commonly used for infants and young children, while choice D, the rectus femoris muscle, is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.

5. A client with cirrhosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In cirrhosis, decreasing the intake of sodium-rich foods is essential to manage fluid retention and symptoms. Excessive sodium intake can worsen fluid accumulation and lead to complications such as ascites. Therefore, advising the client to decrease sodium-rich foods demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management necessary for cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can exacerbate fluid retention and complications in cirrhosis, increasing potassium-rich foods is not the primary focus of dietary management in cirrhosis, and decreasing potassium-rich foods is not a key recommendation for managing cirrhosis-related dietary issues.

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