ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet
1. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?
- A. Discard the first voiding.
- B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
- C. Collect the first voiding.
- D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.
2. What action is required by law when preparing to administer a controlled substance?
- A. Verify the client’s identification using two identifiers.
- B. Document the medication administration in the client’s chart immediately.
- C. Return any unused portion of the medication to the pharmacy.
- D. Have a second nurse witness the disposal of any unused portion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Having a second nurse witness the disposal of any unused portion of a controlled substance is a legal requirement to ensure proper disposal, prevent diversion, and maintain accountability. This practice helps in reducing the risk of misuse or unauthorized access to controlled substances, enhancing patient safety, and complying with legal regulations and standards.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the professional expect?
- A. Swelling of the affected limb.
- B. Diminished peripheral pulses.
- C. Coolness of the affected limb.
- D. Redness and warmth of the affected limb.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Redness and warmth of the affected limb are classic signs of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to inflammation and increased blood flow. These symptoms occur as a result of the blood clot obstructing normal blood flow and causing localized inflammation in the affected limb. Swelling of the affected limb, diminished peripheral pulses, and coolness are not typically associated with DVT. Swelling can be present but is often accompanied by the characteristic redness and warmth. Diminished pulses and coolness are more indicative of arterial insufficiency rather than venous thrombosis.
4. A client has a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism, and a nurse is providing dietary management education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of iodine-rich foods.
- B. You should decrease your intake of iodine-rich foods.
- C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hypothyroidism, increasing intake of iodine-rich foods is beneficial as iodine is essential for the production of thyroid hormones. This helps to support thyroid function in individuals with hypothyroidism. Therefore, advising the client to increase their intake of iodine-rich foods aligns with the recommended dietary management for hypothyroidism. Choice B is incorrect because decreasing iodine-rich foods could lead to further deficiency in individuals with hypothyroidism. Choice C is not directly related to hypothyroidism and lactose intolerance is a separate issue. Choice D is incorrect as increasing dairy products is not a specific recommendation for hypothyroidism unless the client has a deficiency of calcium or vitamin D, which should be assessed separately.
5. A client with cirrhosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
- B. I should decrease my intake of sodium-rich foods.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In cirrhosis, decreasing the intake of sodium-rich foods is essential to manage fluid retention and symptoms. Excessive sodium intake can worsen fluid accumulation and lead to complications such as ascites. Therefore, advising the client to decrease sodium-rich foods demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management necessary for cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing sodium-rich foods can exacerbate fluid retention and complications in cirrhosis, increasing potassium-rich foods is not the primary focus of dietary management in cirrhosis, and decreasing potassium-rich foods is not a key recommendation for managing cirrhosis-related dietary issues.
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