a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a 24 hour urine collection which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet

1. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chicken breast is a suitable recommendation for a low-cholesterol diet as it is low in cholesterol. Eggs and cheese are high in cholesterol and not suitable for a low-cholesterol diet. Butter is also high in cholesterol and should be avoided in a low-cholesterol diet.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, it is important to insert the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper medication delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This angle helps prevent the medication from being injected too deeply or too superficially, ensuring optimal absorption and therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because the needle length for a subcutaneous injection is typically shorter, around ⅝ to 1 inch. Choice C is incorrect as a tuberculin syringe is not commonly used for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is also incorrect as aspiration is not necessary for subcutaneous injections since there are minimal blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.

4. A client receives discharge teaching on a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that should be included when a client receives discharge teaching on a new prescription for lisinopril is to 'Avoid foods high in potassium.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion. Therefore, clients taking lisinopril should be advised to avoid foods high in potassium to prevent potential complications associated with elevated potassium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking lisinopril with food, increasing salt intake, or taking the medication at bedtime are not specific instructions related to lisinopril therapy and may not be beneficial or necessary for the client's condition.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has fluid volume excess. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are indicative of fluid accumulation in the alveoli, which is a characteristic finding in clients with fluid volume excess. The crackling sound occurs due to the presence of excess fluid in the lungs, impairing normal ventilation and gas exchange. Monitoring for crackles is essential for early detection and management of fluid overload in clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in fluid volume excess, hypervolemia leads to increased blood pressure (not hypotension), compensatory tachycardia (not bradycardia), and moist mucous membranes (not dry).

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