Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

2. A healthcare professional is educating a client with osteoporosis about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the professional recommend?

• A. Green beans
• B. Fortified cereal
• C. Red meat
• D. White bread

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fortified cereal is the correct answer as it is an excellent choice for individuals with osteoporosis due to its high calcium and vitamin D content, both essential nutrients for bone health. These nutrients help in maintaining bone density and strength, which is crucial for individuals with osteoporosis. Green beans (choice A) do not provide as much calcium and vitamin D as fortified cereal. Red meat (choice C) is a good source of protein but is not as rich in calcium and vitamin D compared to fortified cereal. White bread (choice D) lacks the essential nutrients needed for bone health, making it a less suitable choice for individuals with osteoporosis.

3. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Monitor intake and output every 8 hours.
• B. Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours.
• C. Measure the client's temperature every 24 hours.
• D. Change the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours. Flushing the feeding tube every 4 hours is essential to maintain patency and prevent clogging, ensuring the client receives the prescribed enteral nutrition without interruption. This intervention helps prevent complications such as tube occlusion. Monitoring intake and output is important for assessing the client's hydration status but does not directly address tube patency. Measuring the client's temperature is essential for monitoring for signs of infection but is not directly related to tube maintenance. Changing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours is important for infection control but does not address tube patency.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. Increase your intake of protein-rich foods.
• B. Decrease your intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
• C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, decreasing the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is essential as impaired kidney function can lead to difficulty in excreting phosphorus, causing an imbalance. This can result in bone and heart complications. Therefore, educating the client to reduce phosphorus intake is crucial for managing the disease and preventing further complications. Option A is incorrect because excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Option C is not directly related to the management of chronic kidney disease. Option D is also incorrect as potassium intake may need to be limited in certain stages of kidney disease.

5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking milk.
• B. I should avoid drinking coffee.
• C. I should avoid eating high-fiber foods.
• D. I should avoid eating low-fat foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding coffee is important in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. Coffee is known to stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, which can exacerbate ulcer symptoms. Therefore, instructing the client to avoid drinking coffee is essential in the dietary management of peptic ulcer disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is generally allowed and can even provide a protective effect against ulcers. High-fiber foods are beneficial for digestion and do not need to be avoided unless they cause discomfort. Low-fat foods are also typically recommended for individuals with peptic ulcer disease as they are easier on the digestive system.

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