a nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased respiratory rate. In pneumonia, the body tries to compensate for the reduced ability to oxygenate the blood by increasing the respiratory rate. This helps to improve oxygen exchange. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia, as an increased heart rate is more common due to the stress on the body. Decreased temperature (Choice C) is not a typical finding in pneumonia, as infections usually cause a fever. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not a common finding in pneumonia unless there are complications such as sepsis.

2. While reviewing the medical record of a client with unstable angina, which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse should report these vital signs to the provider immediately as they indicate increased temperature, tachycardia, and tachypnea, which are signs of possible infection or systemic inflammatory response. This could exacerbate the client's unstable angina and needs prompt evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are not as urgent as the vital signs in option A and do not directly indicate a worsening condition in the context of unstable angina.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

4. A client is being treated for eclampsia. What is a priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Assess for hyperreflexia.' Eclampsia is a severe complication of pregnancy that involves seizures. Hyperreflexia, an overactive or overresponsive reflex, is often an early sign of impending eclampsia. By assessing for hyperreflexia, nurses can identify this warning sign and take preventive measures to manage the condition before seizures occur. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is important but assessing for hyperreflexia takes precedence as it can lead to immediate life-threatening complications. While preparing for delivery (Choice D) may ultimately be necessary, the immediate priority is to assess for hyperreflexia to prevent seizures.

5. A nurse is teaching a client with gestational diabetes about blood sugar control. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should test my blood sugar before each meal.' Monitoring blood sugar before meals is crucial for managing gestational diabetes as it helps in understanding how different foods affect blood sugar levels and adjusting insulin doses accordingly. Choice B is incorrect as food choices should be monitored carefully, not just relying on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because while it is important to manage carbohydrate intake, completely avoiding all carbohydrates is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as blood sugar monitoring throughout the day is essential, not just at bedtime, to ensure proper control and management of gestational diabetes.

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