Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Decreased temperature
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased respiratory rate. In pneumonia, the body tries to compensate for the reduced ability to oxygenate the blood by increasing the respiratory rate. This helps to improve oxygen exchange. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia, as an increased heart rate is more common due to the stress on the body. Decreased temperature (Choice C) is not a typical finding in pneumonia, as infections usually cause a fever. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not a common finding in pneumonia unless there are complications such as sepsis.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adults (OA). The provider should identify that which of the following is a risk factor that places OA at an increased risk for developing infections?

• A. Improved circulation
• B. Increased immune function
• C. Lowered immune system function
• D. Dehydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lowered immune system function.' As individuals age, their immune system tends to weaken, making them more susceptible to infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because improved circulation and increased immune function would typically reduce the risk of infections, while dehydration can impact overall health but is not directly related to immune system function in the context of infection risk.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral tube feeding through an NG tube at 250 mL over 4 hr. The nurse should set the pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

• A. 60 mL/hr
• B. 62 mL/hr
• C. 63 mL/hr
• D. 65 mL/hr

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calculation: 250 mL / 4 hours = 62.5 mL/hr, which should be rounded up to 63 mL/hr. This ensures the correct rate is set for continuous feeding. Choice A (60 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice B (62 mL/hr) is close but does not round up to the nearest whole number as required. Choice D (65 mL/hr) is higher than the correct calculation and would deliver the feeding solution at a faster rate than prescribed.

4. A charge nurse is teaching a new nurse how to clean surfaces contaminated with blood. Which agent should the charge nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Hydrogen peroxide
• B. Chlorhexidine
• C. Isopropyl alcohol
• D. Chlorine bleach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlorine bleach is the most appropriate agent for disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood. It is effective in killing a wide range of pathogens, including viruses. Hydrogen peroxide (Choice A) is not as effective as chlorine bleach for bloodborne pathogen disinfection. Chlorhexidine (Choice B) and isopropyl alcohol (Choice C) are more commonly used for skin antisepsis rather than surface disinfection, making them less suitable options in this scenario.

5. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods
• B. Limit sodium intake
• C. Avoid potassium supplements
• D. Increase protein intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid potassium supplements. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Adding potassium supplements on top of this medication can lead to hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, limiting sodium intake, and increasing protein intake are not specifically related to the dietary considerations when taking spironolactone.

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