ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following foods indicates understanding of dietary teaching?
- A. Cottage cheese
- B. Tuna salad
- C. Rice with black beans
- D. Three-egg omelet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Plant-based proteins such as beans are recommended for clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia production from animal proteins. Cottage cheese (choice A), tuna salad (choice B), and a three-egg omelet (choice D) are high in animal proteins, which can contribute to increased ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, making them less suitable dietary choices for these clients.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will stop taking the medication when I feel better.
- B. I will avoid caffeine while taking this medication.
- C. I will wear sunscreen when going outside.
- D. I will drink plenty of fluids while on this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients should be instructed to complete the entire course of antibiotics, even if they start feeling better, to prevent antibiotic resistance and recurrence of infection.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Slurred speech
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Elevated heart rate
- D. Hyperactivity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Slurred speech is a common sign of stroke and should be assessed immediately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, elevated heart rate, and hyperactivity are not typical signs of a stroke.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?
- A. Oxygen saturation 94%
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Wheezing
- D. Peripheral cyanosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.
5. A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. History of diuretic use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.
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