ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client has been taking levothyroxine for 6 months. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Decreased TSH levels
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client taking levothyroxine for thyroid hormone replacement, decreased TSH levels indicate that the medication is effective. TSH levels decrease as the thyroid hormone levels are adequately replaced by levothyroxine, signaling a positive response to treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure are not expected findings indicating the effectiveness of levothyroxine therapy. Weight gain may suggest inadequate dosing, while increased heart rate and elevated blood pressure could indicate over-replacement or side effects of the medication.
2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?
- A. Tall, peaked T waves
- B. ST segment depressions
- C. Shortened P-R intervals
- D. Shortening of the QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.
3. A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test result should the LPN/LVN monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. International normalized ratio (INR)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct laboratory test result that the LPN/LVN should monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose of heparin therapy is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test is specifically used to monitor heparin therapy, ensuring that the dose administered is within the therapeutic range. Monitoring aPTT helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation by maintaining the appropriate anticoagulant effect of heparin. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is not a direct indicator of heparin's therapeutic effect and is not used to monitor heparin therapy.
4. What is the initial action the nurse should take for a client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) and is experiencing restlessness, agitation, and an increased respiratory rate?
- A. Administer oxygen.
- B. Administer morphine sulfate.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Take the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority action for a client experiencing restlessness, agitation, and an increased respiratory rate after a myocardial infarction (MI). This intervention helps ensure adequate oxygenation, improve cardiac function, and reduce the workload on the heart. Oxygen therapy takes precedence over administering medications like morphine sulfate or notifying the healthcare provider as it addresses the immediate need for oxygenation. Checking the blood pressure is also important but not as urgent as ensuring proper oxygen supply.
5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Hypotension
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that commonly causes hypotension by lowering blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent potential complications in the client receiving this medication. The other options are incorrect: A) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of atenolol as it typically reduces heart rate, B) Dry mouth is not a typical side effect of atenolol, and D) Increased appetite is not commonly associated with atenolol use.
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