Nursing Elites

1. A client has just completed an information session about measures to minimize the progression of coronary artery disease (CAD). Which statement indicates an initial understanding of lifestyle alterations?

• A. I should take daily medication for life.
• B. I should eat a diet that is low in fat and cholesterol.
• C. I should continue to smoke to keep the metabolic rate high.
• D. I should begin to exercise if the diet is not sufficient to achieve weight loss.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choosing a diet that is low in fat and cholesterol is crucial for managing and preventing the progression of coronary artery disease (CAD). This dietary change can help reduce the risk of further complications associated with CAD, such as plaque buildup in the arteries. It is a fundamental lifestyle alteration that can positively impact the client's heart health. Option A is incorrect as relying solely on medication without lifestyle changes may not address the root cause of CAD. Option C is incorrect as smoking is harmful and worsens CAD. Option D is incorrect because exercise is a crucial part of a healthy lifestyle, but dietary changes should come first in managing CAD.

2. A client is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a serious electrolyte imbalance that can cause various cardiac and muscular issues. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report hypokalemia to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting.

3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with chronic stable angina. Which symptom would indicate that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Increased shortness of breath with exertion
• B. Improved tolerance to activity
• C. Decreased frequency of chest pain
• D. Stable blood pressure readings

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased shortness of breath with exertion is a concerning symptom in a client with chronic stable angina as it may indicate inadequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, suggesting a worsening condition. This could be a sign of reduced blood flow to the heart, leading to increased work for the heart during exertion, resulting in increased shortness of breath. Choice B, improved tolerance to activity, is incorrect as it would indicate a positive response to treatment. Choice C, decreased frequency of chest pain, is incorrect as it would also suggest an improvement in the client's condition. Choice D, stable blood pressure readings, are not indicative of a worsening condition in chronic stable angina.

4. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is on a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in a client with DVT, the nurse should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test helps ensure that the dose of heparin is within the therapeutic range, which is essential for preventing clot formation or excessive bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in managing patients on heparin therapy to maintain the delicate balance between preventing thrombosis and avoiding hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more indicative of warfarin therapy effectiveness, not heparin. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and function, not the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.

5. The client is being ambulated due to activity intolerance caused by bacterial endocarditis. How can the nurse determine that the client is best tolerating ambulation?

• A. Mild dyspnea after walking 10 feet
• B. Minimal chest pain rated 1 on a 1-to-10 pain scale
• C. Pulse rate that increases from 68 to 94 beats per minute
• D. Blood pressure that increases from 114/82 to 118/86 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A slight increase in blood pressure without significant symptoms indicates that the client is tolerating the activity. In this scenario, a mild increase in blood pressure without other symptoms is a positive sign of tolerance to ambulation despite the underlying condition of bacterial endocarditis. Choices A, B, and C are not the best indicators of tolerance to ambulation in this case. Mild dyspnea after walking a short distance, minimal chest pain, and an increase in pulse rate are common signs that the activity might not be well-tolerated by the client with a history of bacterial endocarditis.

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