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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Increased thirst
- B. Weight gain
- C. Decreased urination
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased thirst is a classic symptom of hyperglycemia due to the body trying to eliminate excess glucose through urine, leading to dehydration and increased thirst. Weight gain, decreased urination, and fatigue are not typical signs of hyperglycemia. Weight gain is more commonly associated with conditions like hypothyroidism or fluid retention. Decreased urination is not a typical symptom of hyperglycemia, as high blood sugar levels usually lead to increased urination. Fatigue can be a symptom of hyperglycemia, but it is not as specific or characteristic as increased thirst.
2. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Dizziness
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.
3. A client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has a diagnosis of placenta previa is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Limit physical activity
- B. Monitor fetal movements daily
- C. Call the healthcare provider if contractions begin
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients diagnosed with placenta previa are at an increased risk of bleeding and preterm labor. Therefore, it is essential for them to limit physical activity to prevent complications. Monitoring fetal movements daily helps in assessing the well-being of the fetus. Additionally, notifying the healthcare provider if contractions begin is crucial as it could be a sign of preterm labor. Therefore, all of the instructions (limiting physical activity, monitoring fetal movements, and calling the healthcare provider if contractions begin) are necessary for managing placenta previa effectively. Choices A, B, and C are all correct instructions for a client with placenta previa.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- B. Positive Trousseau’s sign
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
- D. Sticky mucous membranes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A sodium level of 122 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is characterized by decreased deep tendon reflexes. Hyponatremia leads to neurological symptoms such as altered reflexes. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with hyponatremia. Positive Trousseau’s sign is related to hypocalcemia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be seen in paralytic ileus or decreased peristalsis, and sticky mucous membranes are not specific findings related to sodium imbalances.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased serum amylase
- B. Decreased serum lipase
- C. Elevated blood glucose
- D. Elevated calcium levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, the nurse should expect elevated blood glucose levels. This is due to impaired insulin production by the inflamed pancreas. While serum amylase and lipase levels are typically elevated in acute pancreatitis, blood glucose levels are also affected due to the pancreatic dysfunction. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect. Elevated calcium levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis, making choice D incorrect.
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