ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for that indicates toxicity?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Constipation
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Tremors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should monitor the client for an increased heart rate, as it can indicate a dangerous level of theophylline in the body. Prompt medical attention is required if tachycardia is observed to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, drowsiness, and tremors are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. While theophylline can cause gastrointestinal upset or central nervous system effects, tachycardia is a more specific and serious indicator of toxicity that requires immediate attention.
2. A client is receiving morphine for pain. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
- A. Urine output
- B. Pupil reaction
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Bowel sounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate. Monitoring the respiratory rate is the priority assessment for a client receiving morphine due to the risk of respiratory depression. Morphine is a potent opioid that can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect that can be life-threatening. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression early and intervene promptly. Assessing urine output is important but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory depression with morphine. Pupil reaction and bowel sounds are also important assessments but do not take precedence over monitoring the respiratory rate when a client is on morphine.
3. The client with myocardial infarction should reduce intake of saturated fat and cholesterol. Which food items from the dietary menu would assist the nurse in helping the client comply with diet therapy?
- A. Cheeseburger, pan-fried potatoes, whole kernel corn, sherbet
- B. Pork chop, baked potato, cauliflower in cheese sauce, ice cream
- C. Baked haddock, steamed broccoli, herbed rice, sliced strawberries
- D. Spaghetti and sweet sausage in tomato sauce, vanilla pudding (with 4% milk)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Option C, which includes baked haddock, steamed broccoli, herbed rice, and sliced strawberries, is the most appropriate choice for a client with myocardial infarction looking to reduce saturated fat and cholesterol intake. This meal is low in saturated fats and cholesterol, making it a heart-healthy option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for such clients. Choices A, B, and D contain foods high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which are not suitable for a client with myocardial infarction trying to adhere to a diet therapy aimed at reducing these components.
4. A client with known coronary artery disease (CAD) begins to experience chest pain while getting out of bed. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain a prescription for pain medication.
- B. Have the client stop and lie back down in bed.
- C. Report the complaint to the healthcare provider.
- D. Instruct the client to continue getting out of bed and into a chair.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with CAD experiences chest pain, it indicates myocardial ischemia. The nurse should have the client stop the activity and lie back down in bed to reduce the heart's oxygen demand, decrease myocardial workload, and prevent further ischemia. This action helps in improving blood flow to the heart and can potentially alleviate the chest pain. Option A is incorrect as pain medication should not be the initial action for chest pain in CAD. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should first intervene directly to address the chest pain. Option D is incorrect as continuing the activity can worsen the myocardial ischemia and chest pain.
5. The client with a history of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypomagnesemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity as low potassium levels enhance the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to toxicity and potential adverse effects. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not directly associated with an increased risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) does not increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypomagnesemia (Choice D) can contribute to digoxin toxicity, but hypokalemia has a more significant impact on increasing the risk.
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