Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for that indicates toxicity?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Constipation
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should monitor the client for an increased heart rate, as it can indicate a dangerous level of theophylline in the body. Prompt medical attention is required if tachycardia is observed to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, drowsiness, and tremors are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. While theophylline can cause gastrointestinal upset or central nervous system effects, tachycardia is a more specific and serious indicator of toxicity that requires immediate attention.

2. A client has a new prescription for transdermal nitroglycerin patches. Which of the following instructions should be included for proper use?

• A. Apply the patch to the same site each day.
• B. Place the patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints.
• C. Keep the patch on 24 hours per day.
• D. Replace the patch every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the nitroglycerin patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints is crucial to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Placing the patch on skin folds or joints can interfere with absorption, potentially reducing the patch's efficacy. Therefore, it is essential to follow this instruction to maximize the therapeutic benefits of the nitroglycerin patches. The other options are incorrect because applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to skin irritation, keeping the patch on 24 hours per day may not be necessary depending on the specific patch instructions, and replacing the patch every 72 hours is not the standard frequency for nitroglycerin patches.

3. A client has a new prescription for phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Expect a metallic taste in your mouth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed phenytoin is to avoid consuming dairy products. Dairy products can reduce the absorption of phenytoin. Taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) is generally a good practice for oral medications but is not specifically required for phenytoin. Taking the medication on an empty stomach (Choice C) can lead to gastrointestinal upset, so it is not recommended for phenytoin. Expecting a metallic taste in the mouth (Choice D) is a possible side effect of phenytoin but is not a crucial instruction for the client to follow.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia is a known side effect of furosemide, a loop diuretic. Furosemide causes increased excretion of potassium in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body which can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, any signs or symptoms of hypokalemia should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not concerning side effects that require immediate reporting to the provider.

5. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Set the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Remove oxygen while the client is eating.
• C. Ensure the client wears a nasal cannula instead of a face mask.
• D. Maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.

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