a client with a serum albumin level of 3 gdl has a pressure ulcer what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A client with a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL has a pressure ulcer. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL and a pressure ulcer is to consult a dietitian to improve the client's nutritional status. Adequate nutrition is essential for wound healing. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance is important but not the first priority in this situation. Administering a protein supplement can be considered after dietary evaluation. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the primary intervention for addressing a pressure ulcer related to low albumin levels.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing chronic pain. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing chronic pain is to teach relaxation techniques. This helps the client manage pain more effectively by reducing stress and anxiety, which can contribute to the perception of pain. Providing distractions like television (Choice A) may offer temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of chronic pain. Administering pain medication around the clock (Choice B) may lead to dependency and not promote holistic pain management. Massage therapy (Choice D) can be beneficial but may not be as effective as teaching relaxation techniques in the long term for managing chronic pain.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

4. What is the most appropriate response when a client with chronic kidney disease asks about fluid restrictions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response when a client with chronic kidney disease asks about fluid restrictions is to inform them that limiting fluid intake may be necessary to prevent fluid overload. This is crucial in managing the condition and preventing complications such as edema and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect as fluid restrictions are commonly advised for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice C is partially correct as fluid restrictions are indeed based on lab results and daily weights, but the primary goal is to prevent fluid overload. Choice D is incorrect because fluid restrictions are not limited to just during dialysis; they are often recommended throughout the day to manage the condition.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.

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