a client with a serum albumin level of 3 gdl has a pressure ulcer what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A client with a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL has a pressure ulcer. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL and a pressure ulcer is to consult a dietitian to improve the client's nutritional status. Adequate nutrition is essential for wound healing. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance is important but not the first priority in this situation. Administering a protein supplement can be considered after dietary evaluation. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the primary intervention for addressing a pressure ulcer related to low albumin levels.

2. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty should be instructed to do which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing a pillow between the legs is essential post-total hip arthroplasty to prevent adduction of the hip joint, reducing the risk of dislocation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Using a walker while walking is encouraged for support and stability. Keeping the hip flexed at 90° while sitting can increase the risk of hip dislocation. Crossing legs at the ankles when sitting may also lead to hip dislocation.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and is receiving enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Persistent cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. This symptom should be reported to the healthcare provider to evaluate if a medication adjustment is needed. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with enalapril use and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Increased heart rate, constipation, and sweating are not commonly linked to enalapril, so they are not the priority findings to report in this case.

4. What are the key signs of respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles are key signs of respiratory distress. When a person is experiencing respiratory distress, their respiratory rate typically increases as the body tries to compensate for the inadequate oxygenation. Additionally, the use of accessory muscles indicates that the person is working harder to breathe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the key signs of respiratory distress. A decreased respiratory rate, cyanosis, altered mental status, and bradycardia are not typical signs of respiratory distress.

5. A client is reinforcing teaching with a nurse about how to use an incentive spirometer. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because inhaling deeply and slowly elevates the cylinder on the spirometer, promoting lung expansion. Choice A is incorrect as exhaling deeply before inhaling is not the correct technique for using an incentive spirometer. Choice C is incorrect as inhaling quickly through the spirometer does not promote optimal lung expansion. Choice D is incorrect as inhaling several short breaths does not facilitate the proper use of an incentive spirometer.

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