ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to improve absorption.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- C. Take the medication at the same time each day.
- D. Increase your intake of high-potassium foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching regarding dabigatran (Pradaxa) is to take the medication at the same time each day. This ensures a consistent blood level and effectiveness of the medication, which is crucial in managing atrial fibrillation and preventing complications. It helps maintain a steady therapeutic effect and reduces the risk of erratic drug levels in the body.
2. A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being discharged home. Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about managing blood glucose levels?
- A. I will test my blood glucose level once a week.
- B. I should eat a snack if my blood glucose is 70 mg/dl.
- C. If I feel shaky, I should take another dose of insulin.
- D. It's okay to skip a meal if I'm not hungry.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. Eating a snack when blood glucose is low (70 mg/dl) can help prevent hypoglycemia. It is important for clients with diabetes to manage their blood glucose levels to prevent complications, and consuming a snack when glucose levels drop can help maintain the balance.
3. In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?
- A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
- B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
- C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100° F.
- D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low Braden score indicates a high risk for pressure ulcers, making regular turning crucial to prevent skin breakdown.
4. A patient with severe pain is prescribed morphine sulfate. What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hypertension
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Increased urine output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed morphine sulfate, the most critical side effect for the nurse to monitor is respiratory depression. Morphine can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to inadequate ventilation and potentially life-threatening consequences. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status closely is essential to promptly identify and manage any signs of respiratory depression.
5. A primipara at 38-weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery for a biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should prepare the client for what procedures?
- A. Chorionic villus sampling under ultrasound.
- B. Amniocentesis and fetal monitoring.
- C. Ultrasonography and nonstress test.
- D. Oxytocin challenge test and fetal heart rate monitoring.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A biophysical profile (BPP) is a prenatal test that assesses the well-being of the fetus. It typically includes ultrasonography to evaluate fetal movements, muscle tone, breathing movements, and amniotic fluid volume. Additionally, a nonstress test is performed to monitor the fetal heart rate in response to its movements. These tests help in determining the overall health and viability of the fetus, making them essential components of prenatal care for assessing fetal well-being.
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