Nursing Elites

1. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to alarm at the nurse's station. The nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Call a code blue.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Check the client's status and lead placement.
• D. Press the recorder button on the ECG console.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the client's status and lead placement. This step is crucial to ensure that the alarm is not triggered by a simple issue such as lead displacement. Calling a code blue (choice A) is premature without assessing the client first. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) can be done after ruling out basic causes for the alarm. Pressing the recorder button (choice D) is not as urgent as checking the client's status and lead placement in this scenario.

2. A client with peripheral arterial disease complains of leg pain while walking. The nurse should reinforce which teaching point with the client?

• A. Wear compression stockings daily.
• B. Increase daily walking distance gradually.
• C. Elevate legs above heart level when resting.
• D. Use a heating pad to soothe leg muscles.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients with peripheral arterial disease experiencing leg pain while walking, the priority teaching point is to gradually increase daily walking distance. This approach helps improve circulation, build tolerance, and reduce symptoms over time. While compression stockings can be beneficial for circulation, they are not the priority teaching point in this scenario. Elevating legs above heart level when resting is more appropriate for clients with venous insufficiency, not peripheral arterial disease. Using a heating pad is not recommended as it can potentially cause burns or skin damage in clients with compromised circulation.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

4. The healthcare professional is assisting in the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare professional monitor most closely?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to significant potassium loss, making it crucial to monitor the client's serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) can result from furosemide use, potentially leading to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications in clients receiving furosemide. Monitoring serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels is not the priority when administering furosemide.

5. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST-segment depression
• C. Prolonged P-R interval
• D. Widening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

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