a 65 year old white female with a history of arthritis congestive heart failure and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks a barium swall
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1. A 65-year-old white female with a history of arthritis, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis complains of odynophagia for two weeks. A barium swallow shows a moderate-sized crater just above the gastroesophageal junction. What is the least likely contributor to this condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the least likely contributor to the condition described is the calcium channel blocker. NSAIDs, alendronate, and iron sulfate have been associated with pill-induced esophagitis, which can present with symptoms like odynophagia and erosions or ulcers on imaging studies. Pill-induced esophagitis is often due to factors like inadequate water intake with the medication, being in a supine position, or underlying motility disorders. Discontinuation of the offending medication typically leads to rapid resolution of esophageal injury. Acid-suppressive therapy may be used to prevent reflux-related damage.

2. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased diuresis. By reducing fluid retention, furosemide helps decrease the workload on the heart in patients with chronic heart failure. This medication does not directly increase cardiac output, decrease heart rate, or lower blood pressure as its primary action.

3. The client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high, a condition known as hyperkalemia, which can lead to severe cardiac complications like arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to lower potassium levels to prevent life-threatening outcomes in clients undergoing hemodialysis.

4. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to administer regular insulin intravenously. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels and correct acidosis, which are critical in managing DKA. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents is not appropriate in the acute setting of DKA as they may not work quickly enough compared to intravenous insulin. While sodium bicarbonate may be used to correct acidosis, insulin administration is the priority to address both hyperglycemia and acidosis simultaneously. Providing a high-calorie diet is not suitable initially in DKA management; the main focus is on stabilizing the patient's condition through insulin therapy and fluid/electrolyte correction.

5. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Nausea and vomiting are common signs of digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious complications like dysrhythmias. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent further harm to the client. Choice A, a heart rate of 58 beats per minute, although slightly lower than normal, may be appropriate for a client on digoxin. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is within normal limits and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Choice D, shortness of breath, is a common symptom in heart failure and requires monitoring but is not as indicative of digoxin toxicity as nausea and vomiting.

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