Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, his blood pressure is 70/40 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 140 beats/min and weak. The child's blood pressure:

• A. indicates decompensated shock.
• B. reflects adequate compensation.
• C. suggests increased intracranial pressure.
• D. is appropriate based on his age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 140 beats/min, and weak, indicate decompensated shock. This presentation signifies inadequate perfusion, leading to compensatory mechanisms being overwhelmed, resulting in decompensated shock. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs suggest the body is unable to adequately compensate for the trauma. Choice C is incorrect as the vital signs are more indicative of shock rather than increased intracranial pressure. Choice D is incorrect as such low blood pressure is not appropriate for a child of this age and indicates a critical condition.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a postpartum client who is 1 day post-delivery. Which finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Lochia rubra with a few small clots
• B. Fundus firm and midline
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
• D. Saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes indicates excessive bleeding, known as postpartum hemorrhage, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring and managing postpartum bleeding are crucial in the early postpartum period to ensure the client's safety and well-being. The other options are normal postpartum findings: lochia rubra with a few small clots is expected in the early postpartum period, a firm and midline fundus indicates proper uterine contraction, and a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) is within the normal range for the postpartum period.

3. During the 5-minute Apgar assessment of a newborn, you note a heart rate of 130 beats/min, cyanosis in the hands and feet, and rapid respirations. The baby cries when you flick the soles of its feet and resists leg straightening. These findings correspond to an Apgar score of:

• A. 9
• B. 7
• C. 8
• D. 10

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Apgar score is a rapid assessment tool to evaluate the newborn's transition to life outside the womb. The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate (>100 bpm), respiratory effort (rapid breathing), muscle tone (resisting leg straightening), reflex irritability (crying when feet are flicked), and color (cyanosis to extremities). The described findings match a score of 9, indicating good overall condition and adaptation to extrauterine life.

4. A mother reported to you that her 6-year-old child is suffering from diarrhea. Which of the following advice will you give to the mother?

• A. Breastfeeding should be continued day and night
• B. Formula milk should be stopped for 6 hours
• C. Breast milk can be given together with oral rehydration salts
• D. A and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a child is suffering from diarrhea, it is essential to continue breastfeeding day and night to maintain hydration and provide necessary nutrients. Stopping formula milk for 6 hours (choice B) is not the recommended approach as it may lead to a lack of essential nutrients during this critical time. Giving breast milk together with oral rehydration salts (choice C) can help replenish lost fluids and electrolytes, making it a suitable recommendation. Therefore, advising the mother to follow both options A and C is the most appropriate approach to manage the child's condition effectively.

5. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?

• A. Blood will shunt left to right, causing increased pulmonary flow and no cyanosis.
• B. Blood will shunt right to left, causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis.
• C. No shunting occurs due to high pressure in the left ventricle.
• D. Increased pressure in the left atrium hinders the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

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