Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, his blood pressure is 70/40 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 140 beats/min and weak. The child's blood pressure:

• A. indicates decompensated shock.
• B. reflects adequate compensation.
• C. suggests increased intracranial pressure.
• D. is appropriate based on his age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 140 beats/min, and weak, indicate decompensated shock. This presentation signifies inadequate perfusion, leading to compensatory mechanisms being overwhelmed, resulting in decompensated shock. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs suggest the body is unable to adequately compensate for the trauma. Choice C is incorrect as the vital signs are more indicative of shock rather than increased intracranial pressure. Choice D is incorrect as such low blood pressure is not appropriate for a child of this age and indicates a critical condition.

2. Alice is rushed to the emergency department during an acute, severe prolonged asthma attack and is unresponsive to usual treatment. The condition is referred to as which of the following?

• A. Status asthmaticus
• B. Reactive airway disease
• C. Intrinsic asthma
• D. Extrinsic asthma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Status asthmaticus is a life-threatening condition characterized by a severe and prolonged asthma attack that does not respond to standard treatments. It requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure and potential fatality. Reactive airway disease, intrinsic asthma, and extrinsic asthma do not specifically denote the severity and unresponsiveness to treatment seen in status asthmaticus.

3. A postpartum client is experiencing heavy lochia and a boggy uterus. What should be the nurse's initial action?

• A. Administer a uterotonic medication
• B. Encourage the client to void
• C. Perform fundal massage
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action for a postpartum client experiencing heavy lochia and a boggy uterus is to perform fundal massage. Fundal massage helps to firm the uterus and reduce bleeding by promoting uterine contractions, which can assist in preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Administering uterotonic medication may be necessary in some cases but should not be the initial action. Encouraging the client to void and increasing fluid intake can be important interventions but are not the priority in this situation where immediate uterine firmness is needed to control bleeding.

4. Use this scenario to answer questions 70 to 72. Madam KK brought her two-month-old sick child to your facility. She complains that the child is having a fever, fast breathing, and is not eating anything. Using the IMNCI, what will be the steps to manage this child?

• A. i. Provide practical treatment instructions
• B. ii. Triage based on the severity of illness
• C. iii. Perform a head-to-toe assessment
• D. iv. Identify specific treatments

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To manage the sick child using IMNCI, the correct steps are as follows: Triage based on the severity of illness, Perform a head-to-toe assessment, Identify specific treatments, Provide practical treatment instructions, and Assess feeding while providing counseling. The correct answer, 'D,' focuses on identifying specific treatments, which is crucial in addressing the child's condition effectively. Choice A ('Provide practical treatment instructions') is not the initial step and should come after identifying specific treatments. Choice B ('Triage based on the severity of illness') and Choice C ('Perform a head-to-toe assessment') are essential steps but should follow the identification of specific treatments in the IMNCI approach.

5. A postpartum client is experiencing difficulty voiding. What should the nurse include in the care plan to assist the client?

• A. Encourage the client to drink caffeine-free beverages.
• B. Apply a warm compress to the client's lower abdomen.
• C. Encourage increased fluid intake to promote urinary flow.
• D. Assist the client with Kegel exercises.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying a warm compress to the lower abdomen can help relax the muscles and stimulate voiding in postpartum clients. It promotes vasodilation, increases blood flow to the area, and can aid in relieving urinary retention. Encouraging caffeine-free beverages can also be beneficial as caffeine can irritate the bladder and worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent urinary stasis and promotes bladder emptying. Kegel exercises can strengthen pelvic floor muscles over time, but in the immediate situation of difficulty voiding, a warm compress is more appropriate.

Similar Questions