Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, his blood pressure is 70/40 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 140 beats/min and weak. The child's blood pressure:

• A. indicates decompensated shock.
• B. reflects adequate compensation.
• C. suggests increased intracranial pressure.
• D. is appropriate based on his age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 140 beats/min, and weak, indicate decompensated shock. This presentation signifies inadequate perfusion, leading to compensatory mechanisms being overwhelmed, resulting in decompensated shock. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs suggest the body is unable to adequately compensate for the trauma. Choice C is incorrect as the vital signs are more indicative of shock rather than increased intracranial pressure. Choice D is incorrect as such low blood pressure is not appropriate for a child of this age and indicates a critical condition.

2. A postpartum client is concerned about hair loss. The nurse explains that this is:

• A. A sign of nutritional deficiency
• B. A temporary condition due to hormonal changes
• C. An indication of a thyroid disorder
• D. A result of poor hair care during pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hair loss postpartum is a common temporary condition caused by hormonal changes that occur after giving birth. This condition is known as postpartum alopecia and is a normal part of the postpartum period. It is important for the nurse to reassure the client that this hair loss is temporary and usually resolves on its own without the need for medical intervention. Choice A is incorrect because postpartum hair loss is primarily due to hormonal changes rather than nutritional deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as thyroid disorder is not typically the cause of postpartum hair loss. Choice D is incorrect as poor hair care during pregnancy does not cause postpartum hair loss.

3. When teaching a new mother how to perform perineal care, which instruction should be included?

• A. Use a front-to-back motion when cleaning the perineal area
• B. Use a peri-bottle filled with warm water after each voiding
• C. Avoid using any cleansing solution on the perineal area
• D. Apply powder to the perineal area to keep it dry

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using a peri-bottle filled with warm water after each voiding is essential for proper perineal care as it helps cleanse the area without causing irritation and promotes healing. It is important to avoid using a back-to-front motion to prevent introducing bacteria into the urethra, and using powder may increase the risk of infection. Cleansing solutions specifically formulated for perineal care may be recommended but should be used under healthcare provider guidance.

4. Which of the following are clinical types of diarrhoea EXCEPT?

• A. Acute watery
• B. Bloody diarrhoea
• C. Persistent diarrhoea
• D. Secretory diarrhoea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Secretory diarrhoea is not a clinical type but a distinct mechanism of diarrhoea characterized by increased electrolyte secretion. Acute watery, bloody, and persistent diarrhoea are recognized clinical types associated with different underlying causes and pathophysiologies. Acute watery diarrhoea is common in infectious gastroenteritis, bloody diarrhoea can be caused by inflammatory conditions or infections, and persistent diarrhoea typically lasts for more than 14 days due to various reasons like infections, malabsorption, or inflammatory bowel diseases.

5. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?

• A. Blood will shunt left to right, causing increased pulmonary flow and no cyanosis.
• B. Blood will shunt right to left, causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis.
• C. No shunting occurs due to high pressure in the left ventricle.
• D. Increased pressure in the left atrium hinders the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

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