Nursing Elites

1. Why are noble gas elements generally unreactive?

• A. They are too large and cannot form bonds easily.
• B. They lack valence electrons in their outermost shell.
• C. They have strong bonds within their own molecules.
• D. They have already achieved stable electron configurations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Noble gas elements are generally unreactive because they have already achieved stable electron configurations by having a full outer electron shell. This full shell makes them very stable and unlikely to gain, lose, or share electrons with other elements. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because noble gases are not unreactive due to being too large to form bonds easily (A), lacking valence electrons in their outermost shell (B), or having strong bonds within their own molecules (C).

2. Which of the following is an example of a chemical property of matter?

• A. Boiling point
• B. Flammability
• C. Density
• D. Conductivity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Flammability is an example of a chemical property of matter because it describes how a substance reacts with oxygen in the air to produce heat and light. Chemical properties involve the ability of a substance to undergo a chemical change or reaction, such as burning. Boiling point, density, and conductivity are examples of physical properties, not chemical properties. Boiling point is the temperature at which a substance changes from a liquid to a gas, density is the mass of a substance per unit volume, and conductivity is the ability to conduct electricity. Therefore, flammability best exemplifies a chemical property as it pertains to the substance's reaction with oxygen, while the other options are physical properties that describe characteristics without changing the substance's chemical composition.

3. Which of the following best describes the process of osmosis?

• A. Movement of molecules against their concentration gradient
• B. Movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane
• C. Movement of water and solutes together
• D. Movement of large molecules through a membrane

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Osmosis is the process where water moves across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration. Choice A is incorrect because osmosis does not involve movement against the concentration gradient. Choice C is incorrect because osmosis primarily involves the movement of water, not water and solutes together. Choice D is incorrect as osmosis specifically refers to the movement of water molecules, not large molecules, through a membrane.

4. What happens to the wavelength of a wave when its frequency increases while the speed remains constant?

• A. Wavelength increases
• B. Wavelength decreases
• C. Wavelength remains the same
• D. Wavelength becomes zero

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When the speed of a wave is constant and the frequency increases, the wavelength must decrease to keep the speed constant. The speed of a wave is determined by the product of frequency and wavelength (speed = frequency x wavelength). If the frequency increases while the speed remains constant, the wavelength has to decrease proportionally to maintain the speed unchanged. Therefore, as the frequency increases, the wavelength decreases to ensure that the speed of the wave remains constant. Choice A is incorrect because as frequency increases, wavelength decreases. Choice C is incorrect as the wavelength cannot remain the same when frequency increases while speed is constant. Choice D is incorrect as the wavelength cannot become zero under these conditions.

5. In order to verify if a particular drug is responsible for the recovery of individuals with a disorder, what procedure would be most effective in testing its effectiveness?

• A. Ensure that neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are given the drug and which are given the placebo.
• B. Ensure that the subjects do not know whether they are given the drug or the placebo, but the investigators are aware of who has received the medication.
• C. Ensure that the investigators do not know whether they are administering the drug or the placebo, but the subjects do know which they are receiving.
• D. Ensure that both the investigators and the subjects have full knowledge of which subjects are getting the drug and which are getting a placebo.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective procedure in testing whether the drug is responsible for the recovery is to ensure that neither the subjects nor the investigators know which subjects are given the drug and which are given the placebo. This method is known as a double-blind study, which helps eliminate biases and ensures that the results are reliable and not influenced by expectations or beliefs. By keeping both the subjects and investigators unaware of who is receiving the drug or placebo, the study can accurately determine the true impact of the drug on recovery. Choice B is incorrect as it only prevents the subjects from knowing which treatment they are receiving, allowing for potential bias from the investigators. Choice C is also incorrect as it allows for potential bias from the subjects. Choice D is incorrect as full knowledge of treatment allocation can introduce bias and affect the study's validity.

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