Nursing Elites

1. Which symptom is most commonly associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Frequent mood swings
• B. Intrusive, repetitive thoughts
• C. Hallucinations
• D. Flashbacks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intrusive, repetitive thoughts. Intrusive, repetitive thoughts are the hallmark symptom of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Individuals with OCD experience persistent, unwanted thoughts or obsessions that lead to repetitive behaviors or compulsions. These thoughts are intrusive and difficult to control, causing significant distress and interfering with daily activities. While mood swings, hallucinations, and flashbacks can be present in other mental health conditions, they are not the primary symptoms associated with OCD.

2. Which symptom is most commonly associated with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

• A. Frequent panic attacks
• B. Persistent and excessive worry
• C. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
• D. Compulsive behaviors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Persistent and excessive worry. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is characterized by persistent and excessive worry about a variety of things, even when there is little or no reason to worry. This worry is difficult to control and can significantly impact daily life. While panic attacks, recurrent intrusive thoughts, and compulsive behaviors can occur in other anxiety disorders, persistent and excessive worry is the hallmark symptom of GAD. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the primary symptom associated with GAD.

3. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has a mental health disorder. Which of the following actions should the professional include as a psychobiological intervention?

• A. Assist the client with systematic desensitization therapy
• B. Teach the client appropriate coping mechanisms
• C. Assess the client for comorbid health conditions
• D. Monitor the client for adverse effects of medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring the client for adverse effects of medications is considered a psychobiological intervention because it involves the physiological aspect of mental health treatment. It focuses on the biological impact of medications on the client's mental health condition, emphasizing the interplay between biological and psychological factors in managing mental health disorders. Choices A, B, and C are not psychobiological interventions. Choice A, systematic desensitization therapy, is a psychological intervention aimed at reducing anxiety by gradually exposing the client to feared stimuli. Choice B, teaching appropriate coping mechanisms, is a psychosocial intervention focusing on behavioral strategies to manage stress. Choice C, assessing for comorbid health conditions, pertains to identifying other medical issues that may coexist with the mental health disorder but does not directly address the biological effects of medications on mental health.

4. A patient with social anxiety disorder is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which symptom is this medication most likely intended to address?

• A. Panic attacks
• B. Tremors and palpitations
• C. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
• D. Depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Beta-blockers are commonly used to alleviate physical symptoms associated with anxiety disorders, such as tremors and palpitations. These medications help manage the autonomic symptoms of anxiety, like increased heart rate and trembling, which are often prominent in social anxiety disorder. Beta-blockers do not primarily target cognitive symptoms like recurrent, intrusive thoughts (choice C), panic attacks (choice A), or depression (choice D) in social anxiety disorder.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine. What is a common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Nausea
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of fluoxetine and should be monitored.

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