ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. What should the nurse do first when a client with a tracheostomy exhibits respiratory distress?
- A. Notify the provider
- B. Suction the tracheostomy
- C. Administer a bronchodilator
- D. Increase the oxygen flow rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial action when a client with a tracheostomy exhibits respiratory distress is to suction the tracheostomy. This helps to clear secretions and improve the client's ability to breathe. Notifying the provider (choice A) can cause a delay in immediate intervention. Administering a bronchodilator (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice D) can be helpful but should come after addressing the immediate need for suctioning to clear the airway.
2. A client with moderate anxiety disorder is being taught stress management techniques by a nurse. Which response by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take a walk to reduce my anxiety
- B. I will imagine myself in a calm place when I can't concentrate
- C. I will meditate every other week
- D. I will cut back on my caffeine intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because imagining oneself in a calm place is a relaxation technique that helps reduce anxiety. Walking, meditating every other week, or cutting back on caffeine intake may have their benefits, but they are not as directly related to the immediate management of anxiety as the visualization technique described in option B.
3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV fluids. Which of the following should the nurse do upon noticing phlebitis at the IV site?
- A. Apply a cold compress to the site
- B. Notify the provider immediately
- C. Remove the IV catheter and restart it in another location
- D. Monitor the site for signs of infection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Upon noticing phlebitis at the IV site, the nurse should remove the IV catheter and restart it in another location. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and leaving the IV catheter in place can lead to further complications such as infection. Applying a cold compress (Choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Notifying the provider immediately (Choice B) is important, but the immediate action to prevent complications is to remove the IV catheter. Monitoring the site for signs of infection (Choice D) is necessary, but the priority action is to remove and reinsert the IV catheter to prevent worsening of the phlebitis.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who was admitted for acute kidney injury. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be elevated?
- A. Creatinine
- B. Magnesium
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Creatinine is the correct answer. In acute kidney injury, creatinine levels are expected to be elevated due to impaired renal function. Magnesium, hemoglobin, and white blood cell count are not typically elevated in acute kidney injury. Magnesium levels may be affected in kidney disease, but elevation is not a common finding in acute kidney injury.
5. A client who is newly diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia needs to include foods rich in iron in their diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as having the highest amount of iron?
- A. Boiled spinach
- B. Raw carrots
- C. Boiled chicken
- D. Yogurt
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Boiled spinach is an excellent source of iron, making it a top choice for individuals with iron deficiency anemia. Spinach contains non-heme iron, which may not be absorbed as efficiently as heme iron from animal sources but is still beneficial. Raw carrots, boiled chicken, and yogurt are not as rich in iron compared to spinach. Carrots are more known for their beta-carotene content, chicken is a good source of protein but not high in iron, and yogurt does not contain significant amounts of iron.
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