Nursing Elites

1. What are early indicators of dehydration?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

2. Which of the following is an early sign that suctioning is required for a client with a tracheostomy?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Irritability
• C. Confusion
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is necessary to clear the airway in a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions build up in the tracheostomy tube, the client may become irritable due to the discomfort and the compromised airway. Bradycardia, confusion, and hypotension are not typically early signs that suctioning is required. Bradycardia may occur if the airway becomes severely compromised, confusion may be a late sign of hypoxia, and hypotension is not directly related to the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy.

3. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement for a client with hyperkalemia?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate
• B. Increase fluid intake to promote potassium excretion
• C. Administer a diuretic
• D. Administer sodium bicarbonate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with hyperkalemia is to administer calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps counteract the effects of hyperkalemia by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may not effectively lower potassium levels. Administering a diuretic (Choice C) or sodium bicarbonate (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia and may not address the immediate need to lower potassium levels.

4. A client who is to undergo an exercise stress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should eat a large meal 2 hours before the test
• B. I should avoid drinking water before the test
• C. I should stop taking my blood pressure medication
• D. I should report any chest pain during the test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I should report any chest pain during the test.' This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because reporting chest pain during an exercise stress test is crucial as it may signify cardiac distress. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Eating a large meal 2 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the results. Avoiding drinking water before the test is also not advisable as staying hydrated is important. Stopping blood pressure medication without medical advice can be dangerous, especially before a stress test.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has peptic ulcer disease about preventing exacerbations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use antacids containing magnesium frequently
• B. Limit alcohol consumption
• C. Eat smaller, frequent meals
• D. Increase caffeine intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit alcohol consumption. Alcohol consumption can aggravate peptic ulcer disease by increasing gastric acid secretion, potentially leading to exacerbations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended because antacids containing magnesium can interfere with other medications or conditions the client may have. Choice C is a good recommendation; however, it is not the priority instruction for preventing exacerbations. Choice D is also incorrect as caffeine can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can worsen peptic ulcer disease.

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