ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. What are early indicators of dehydration?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Increased thirst
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.
2. What are the key signs of hyperglycemia?
- A. Increased thirst and frequent urination
- B. Decreased appetite and low blood pressure
- C. Weight loss and nausea
- D. Increased sweating and confusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased thirst and frequent urination. These are classic signs of hyperglycemia, indicating elevated blood sugar levels. Choice B is incorrect as hyperglycemia usually presents with increased appetite rather than decreased appetite and low blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as weight loss is more commonly associated with uncontrolled diabetes rather than hyperglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as increased sweating and confusion are not typical signs of hyperglycemia.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should the nurse address first?
- A. Restlessness and agitation
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Wandering during the night
- D. Incontinence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with dementia, addressing restlessness and agitation is a priority because these symptoms can exacerbate dementia and lead to further complications. Restlessness and agitation can indicate underlying issues such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs, which should be promptly assessed and managed to improve the client's quality of life. Decreased respiratory rate, wandering during the night, and incontinence are important to address but do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being compared to the potential effects of unmanaged restlessness and agitation in dementia.
4. What is the correct procedure for taking a telephone order from a provider?
- A. State patient name, drug, dose, route, frequency, and read back the order
- B. State the medication and ask for a witness to listen to the order
- C. Write down the order and verify with the provider within 12 hours
- D. Have the provider verify the order during the next in-person visit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct procedure for taking a telephone order from a provider is to state the patient's name, drug, dose, route, frequency, and then read back the order to ensure accuracy. This process helps in preventing errors and ensures that all relevant information is correctly documented. Choice B is incorrect because having a witness listen to the order is not a standard practice and may not guarantee accuracy. Choice C is incorrect as verifying the order within 12 hours may lead to delays in patient care. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the provider to verify the order during the next in-person visit could result in a significant delay in administering necessary medication.
5. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.
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