Nursing Elites

1. What are early indicators of dehydration?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

2. What is the most important step when preparing to administer a blood transfusion?

• A. Check if the client has a fever
• B. Ensure the blood type is compatible with the client
• C. Administer the blood via IV push
• D. Ensure the blood is warmed to body temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensure the blood type is compatible with the client. This is the most crucial step in preparing for a blood transfusion to prevent severe transfusion reactions. Checking the client for a fever (Choice A) is important but not the most critical step. Administering blood via IV push (Choice C) is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered as a slow drip. Warming the blood to body temperature (Choice D) is not a standard practice and can lead to hemolysis, making it an incorrect choice.

3. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?

• A. I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.
• B. I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.
• C. I flushed what I urinated at 7 am and have saved the rest since.
• D. I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and is receiving enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Persistent cough
• C. Constipation
• D. Sweating

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Persistent cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. This symptom should be reported to the healthcare provider to evaluate if a medication adjustment is needed. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with enalapril use and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Increased heart rate, constipation, and sweating are not commonly linked to enalapril, so they are not the priority findings to report in this case.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client supine.
• B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water.
• C. Administer methylergonovine IM.
• D. Administer calcium gluconate IV.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is the antidote that should be administered promptly. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used for postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

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